kgr

IMP's[hv=pc=n&s=skt5ha74djt5cq965&n=sa98643hqt5da4cjt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sd2h(3cS%2C%208+)p2sppp]266|200[/hv] 2H=8+ and 3c♠ Should we be in game, If yes: who should have done more?

...only questions: - Game before slam, so it is best to play 3♥ here as another game-try? (so 3♥ is either a game try or Slam interest). - Responder bids 3♠ with minimum, 4♠ with almost minimum, 3NT non-serious with some extras (in case opener has a slam interest), Cue with slam interest. - If responder cues over 3♥: f.i. responder bids 4♣, should opener always cooperate, also if 3♥ was a game-try (then responder can only cue with a slam-interest opposite an almost minimum opener) or should opener only cooperate if he has a slam interest himself? ...or if responder cues, opener cooperates and responder bids 4♠ then this shows a 'polite cue' (good hand opposite a slam interest of opener, but only game interest if opener had a game-try). ...but then if responder cues 4♣, opener cues 4♥: what is 4♠ by responder?: does this deny ♦-control or does this show the 'polite cue'?

The 3rd ♠ was not best, but having played 3 rounds of Spade giving the end position like in the OP, shouldn't you play a high ♦: If you play a low Diamond to the A, cross to dummy in Clubs and play Diamond, RHO discarding then this remains after playing D for LHO DQ: K=v=J=J7 * T=v=65=A LHO returns Club and you still have to loose a Club.

LHO had ♦Qxx. I forced the 3th ♠ round to make the problem more interesting :) The hand then has in it: trump-control, avoiding a ruff of a good ♦ and unblocking in ♦ (It certainly is not 'novice and beginner' material at the table and probably is difficult enough for int/adv as a problem)

What is your range for the splinter? For me it is 12-14 and 4c-support and a singleton (no void): 4♣ is what I bid.

Any intermediate/advanced or expert wants to comment on the play? (Don't like zero replies :huh: )

[hv=pc=n&s=sajt5h86dak654ca5&n=skq73h53djt92ckj7&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=p1n2d(Multi-Landy%5B6+cMajor%20and%208+pts%5D)d(At%20least%20one%204cMajor)2h(Pass%20or%20correct%20to%202S)pp3h(Stayman)p4sppp]266|200[/hv] LHO showed long Hearts. LHO leads ♥K and RHO overtakes with the A and returns ♥7. LHO now plays ♠2 and you play another ♠ and see that spades are 1-4. You play another round of ♠: (bold=card winning the trick; underline= South) ♥K-♥3-♥A-♥6 ♥7-♥8-♥9-♥5 ♠2-♠3-♠6-♠J ♠A-♥2-♠7-♠4 ♠5-♥4-♠Q-♠8 [hv=pc=n&s=sthdak654ca5&n=skhdjt92ckj7&d=e&v=e&b=6]140|200[/hv] How do you continue?

We have a rule: We have a known fit and opps don't have a fit then DBL is PEN: 1♥-(2♣)-2♥-(3♣) DBL => Invite for 4♥, partner can Pass, bid 3/4♥ 1♥-(Pass)-2♥-(3♣) DBL => Penalty (2♣;weak both majors or strong)-DBL1-(2♥)-DBL2 => What are these DBLs? We play: - DBL1: multi, including 15+ with 1 or 2 Majors - DBL2: still take-out (DBL by advancer after overcaller DBLed a 2-suiter for penalty is only penalty if he showed values before). (1NT; weak)-DBL1-(2♦)-DBL2 => What are these DBLs? We play: - DBL1: penalty - DBL2: still take-out (DBL by advancer after overcaller DBLed for penalty is only penalty if he showed values before). (1NT; weak)-DBL1-(Pass, forces RDBL)-Pass (RDBL)-Pass-(2♦)-DBL2 => DBL2: Penalty?

..no need to think more.LHO had: 1363 with ♣AQJ

[hv=pc=n&s=sak974hkqj95dck83&n=s853ht8dat53c9765&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1s2dpp3hp3sppp]266|200|IMPs[/hv] ♦Q-♦A-♦2-♣3 ♠3-♠2-♠A-♠Q ♥5-♥4-♥8-♥7 ♠5-♠T-♠K-♦6 What is your plan to make this? (Italian signals by Opps: D6 asks C)

How should West force to 6? Via 4NT (RKC) or 5NT (pick slam) or...?

Both hands were:MP's[hv=pc=n&s=skj962hkj62dkj62c&n=sAtxxhT9dQTcJxxxx&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1s1n(Minors%2C%204-4%20possible%20%5Bdepends%20on%20strngth%5D)2sppp]233|200|MP's[/hv] LHO did lead ♠ and I made 2♠+3

on the website they proposed to open 2C: 2C-(3D)- 3S 4NT-...

Doing the bidding practice from L.Cohen site with my partner [hv=pc=n&w=skj8hat8dacakjt76&e=saq764h732d64cq32&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1c3d(preempt)dp4dp4sp5cppp]266|200|IMPs[/hv] If East bids 3♠ iso DBL then we have agreement that it is GF. West can open 2♦ and rebid 3♣ to show GF in ♣. Or West can open 2NT 20-21, but thought his hand was too good for it and not balanced enough. 2♦ followed by 2NT would have been 22-23. East thought that he didn't have enough for 3♠ GF, and that he had bid enough with the DBL. So, how should we bid to 7...or 6?

I didn't remember the small cards, so I thought all 6 & 2 was best :rolleyes:

MP's[hv=pc=n&s=skj962hkj62dkj62c&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1s1n(Minors%2C%204-4%20possible%20%5Bdepends%20on%20strngth%5D)2sp]133|200|MP's[/hv] LHO bids 1NT for the minors. Strength depends on distribution, but minimum is similar to 1-level overcall. The only agreements with partner are: - lowest cue: invite+ with 3c♠ - 2NT: invite+ with 4c♠ - 3♠: preemptive => 2♠: 3(4)c♠ and 6-9 HCP How do you evaluate this hand (& would you do more at IMPs)?

No problem. Note: I played this hand against Jack. My partner didn't duck ♠A however. That is probably less obvious. This was a hand of tournament "MK Paren 2003" (means something like: Netherlands Master Class Pairs 2003)

Thanks. Your analysis is correct.

[hv=pc=n&s=sq2h654d9854ckt73&e=skj98h7dajt7ca652&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1spp2d2h5dppp]266|200|MPs[/hv] Normal signal. Partner North leads the ♥K taken by declarer (W) with the ♥A. Declarer plays a ♠ to ♠K in Dummy. Another ♠ is played for your ♠Q. You play a trump that is taken by dummy. This is followed by another ♠ from Dummy. ♥K-♥7-♥4-♥A ♠5-♠3-♠K-♠2 ♠8-♠Q-♠T-♠4 ♦4-♦2-♥3-♦7 ♠9-??? - Who has ♠A, ♥KQ? - What is partners distribution? - What tricks will declarer make? => How do you plan the defense?

So the real hands were: [hv=pc=n&s=sak52hk3dkq4cak53&n=sq74hjt2daj52cq62&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=2d(multi)p2h(pass/correct)p2n(22-23)p3c(puppet)p3d(4c%20Major)p4n(Quantitative)p5c(4c%20Club%2C%20Max)p6nppp]266|200|IMPs Teams[/hv] A bit more explanation about North chooses instead of bidding 4NT: - 4♣: 5c♣ OR (4-4 or 4-5 minors), and slam interest. Opener bids 4♦ with 4c♦; Cue 4♥/4♠ with 4c♣; and bids 4NT without a good hand for ♣ or ♦. - 4♦: 5c♦ and slam interest. Opener bids 4NT without a good hand for ♦. Maybe the best bidding is?: 2♦-2♥ 2NT-3♣ 3♦-4NT 5♣-5NT AP ...If we would agree that 5NT means: I have a minimal hand for my quantitative 4NT and no 4c♣. Bid 6NT if you are really maximal. => Is that the best meaning for 5NT? BTW: Another bidding suggested in a post before was: 2♦-2♥ 2NT-4NT AP I appreciate that with this balanced hand a direct 4NT is an option iso looking for a 5-3 fit. At the other hand: with this minimal hand for a slam invite, a 5-3 fit could play better than NT. But probably partner will still bid 6♠ with f.i.: AKxxx=Kx=KQx=AKx

I don't know if opps would bid this slam. They made a 'wrong' opening because they didn't count ♠Q. :( I think they ended in 3NT.

Thanks all for the answers. For the play: everything was wrong (♥AQ after the K and black suits 4-2)

Another remark: This is a teams competition in a lower division. We are trying to place first at the end, so that we can go to 2nd division (which is actually 3th because there is also honour division). So it is not about winning or loosing the matches, but also with as much points as possible. So we should bid and play normally without taking strength of opps into account? ...bid 50% slams?

What made you think I was South?BTW: Maybe I don't have the hands 100% correctly... Should South also pass 4NT with?: AKxx KJ AKx Axxx In that case I had.. Qxx xxx QJxx KQx He argued that he had only 22 pts, but all top-cards. I told him that that was not very important on this bidding (top cards expected because he is strong, and when he has top cards then I have more of the Qs and Js for my invite). Did he have a point?

1NT seems to correspond to your agreements. (We play this the same, but 1NT non-forcing and can even do it with a 5c♠)