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4♥ is slam-forcing with ♥ for us. Probably no very useful Do you think West does not have enough to go over 3NT? Yes, after opener is positive for ♣ we cannot stop in 4NT. That is RKC.With a ♣-fit, 5♣ will not often be worse (at IMPs) than 4NT.

These were the hands and our real biddings. They are different then OP because I didn't want to make it more complicated with our special agreements in OP. (The hands come from Becker Archives of Larry Cohen's bidding practice): Hand 1: [hv=pc=n&w=sj982h432da2caq32&e=sak3haqjdqj9ckjt4&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=2n(20-21)p3c(Puppet%20Stayman)p3n(No%204c%20Major)p4c(slam%20try%3A%205c-C%20or%20both%20minors)p4h(C-fit%2C%20does%20not%20deny%20D-cue%20%5B4D%3DNo%204cC%2C%204cD%5D)p5cppp]266|200[/hv] Our bidding was different because 4♥ didn't deny a ♦-cue. If responder needed a ♦-cue than he should no bid 5♣(?). 3NT better contract than 5♣. Hand 2: [hv=pc=n&w=skq432h32da2cat82&e=sa65hakqj4d43cj43&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sp2c(3cS%20%26%20limit+%20OR%20C%20%26%2010+)p2d(5cS%2C%20no%204cH%2C%2014-%20OR%204cD%20%5Bcan%20still%20be%20strong%20if%20real%20D%5D)p3s(3cS%2C%20slam-interest)p4c(Cue%2C%20not%20minimum%20%5B3NT%20is%20non-serious%5D)p4h(no%20D-cue%2C%20H-Cue)p4sppp]266|200[/hv] I did bid 2♣ because I did not need support from partner in ♥. Doing that again I now learned it is better to start with ♥ anyway! 2♦-bid of partner can still be strong if he holds real Diamonds. This doesn't happen very often, but it is probably better if partner bids 3NT, non-serious, to show 12-14 (even with a max in this range). Now he has a problem to go over 4S to show the D-cue

1♥-(1♠)-Pass-(2♠) DBL-(Pass)-2NT 2NT=both minors, this one is clear? 1♥-(2♠)-Pass-(Pass) DBL-(Pass)-2NT 2NT=??? Pass-(2♠)-Pass-(Pass) DBL-(Pass)-2NT 2NT=Lebensohl, this one is clear? Maybe a good and easy rule is?: "2NT is 2PTP instead of Lebensohl when DBLer knows that 2NT bidder is weak" (weak to be defined to have a decision for 2nd bidding)

Thanks for the answers! Still not sure what is best. I think 2 places is best in this situation (not sure), but maybe Lebensohl is easier for memory. "I like Danny Sprung's idea Two Places to Play from Bridge Winners." => He defines it a Lebensohl: "2NT is 2PTP instead of Lebensohl unless only one opponent showed values"; But he could also have used the rule: "2NT is 2PTP instead of Lebensohl when partner is certainly weak" and then it would be 2 places. This was my hand when partner bid 2NT. MP's: [hv=pc=n&s=sa2hakj92dk982ck2&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1h2s(weak)ppdp2n(lebensohl/scrambling)p]133|200[/hv] I thought it was Lebensohl, he tought it was 2 places. Do you prefer Lebensohl or 2 places holding this hand?

Question: Is it illegal in ACBL at any level to open 1NT and explain it as "15-17, not the usual balanced because will often have a singleton" and have follow-ups to discover the singleton? (seems like system are more restricted in ACBL than in Europe?)

These questions were triggered by a bidding practice with my partner. The hands I gave are example hands, but I'm most interested in the bidding and question without the hands. Bidding 1: 2NT-3♣ 3NT-4♣ 4H-? 2NT=20-21 3♣=puppet stayman 3NT=No 4c Major 4♣=4+c♣ and some slam interest 4♥=positive for ♣, cue ♥, no ♦-cue What should responder bid with a minimum hand (marginal slam interest) and a ♦-cue and no ♠-cue? e.g: [hv=pc=n&s=sj983h632da3caq52]133|100[/hv] Bidding 2: 1♠-2♥ 2♠-3♠ 4♣-4♥ ?? We don't play 2/1, 2♠ shows a hand with less than 15 pts and 3♠ shows 3c♠ and slam-interest 4♣=We play 3NT is non-serious. 4♣ shows a hand that is not minimal 4♥=♥-control, no ♦-control. Should opener move above 4♠ with a minimum hand and a ♦-control? [hv=pc=n&s=skq532h64da4cat84]133|100[/hv]

1♥-(2♠)-Pass-(Pass) DBL-(Pass)-2NT 1♥=5c+♥ 2♠=weak (This happened when opps were vulnerable, so not very weak) DBL=take-out What is best usage for 2NT bid here?: - I expected Lebensohl, similar as (2♠)-DBL-(Pass)-2NT; This is easiest for memory as well. - My partner meant it as both minors. Maybe that is more useful because I already know that partner will not have much (different than 2NT lebensohl after opps open a weak 2).

Ok tx. In this situation you probably play honors in reverse order if it is AK tight and you want to play both honors before switching.

Against NT contract partner starts small ♠. (Dummy has 4 small ♠'s.) I have ♠QJ. Should I play the J or the Q?

Thanks for the answers! Keeping it natural, do you agree with the following?: 1S-(2H)-3D (3D=GF) ? 3H=nothing to say: No 6cS, No H-stop, No 4(3)c-D (Not sure you would always bid 4D with 4cD at MP's) 3S=6cS 3NT=Stop H 4C=Natural, 5cC 4D=Natural, 4(3)cD 4H=D-fit, Splinter 4S=Good 6(7)cS, Extras (Or Fast arrival, So minimal??) 1S-(2H)-3D 3H-? 3S=3cS, Good D, slam-interest 3NT=To play, Good D 4C=natural 4D=natural, 6cD, slam-interest 4H=Cue with S 4S=to play, 3cS, good D 4NT=RKC for D (with S bid 3S first and 4NT later) 5D= to play 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-? 3NT=To play, Good D 4C=natural 4D=natural, 6cD, slam-interest 4H=Cue with S 4S=to play, 3cS, good D 4NT=RKC for S (with D bid 4D first and 4NT later) 5D=to play 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-4D ? 4H=Cue for D 4S=to play 4N=RKC for D 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-4D 4S-? 4NT=RKC for D (This is the way to go to RKC for D?)

I found this difficult: 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-? We have agreed that 3D is natural and almost sure that responder has no 3cS (2NT, 3H, 4C, 4D, 4H are all S-fits). We also have agreed that 1S-2D-3S-4D: 4D=cue for S. - Is 3S by opener forcing? - What is 4C, 4D and 4H now. It seems to me that 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-4D Opener didn't promise good Spades or extras, so this is really different than: 1S-3D 3S-4D 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-4H - What is responder asking and what is 4NT by Opener now? Is it to play? 1S-(2H)-3D 3S-4H 4S-4NT - 4NT is RKC. For D or for S? FYI below the 2 hands and the bidding, but I'm more interested in the more general questions above. [hv=pc=n&s=saqt642hkq74d7c52&n=s5ha5dakqjt42ck83&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1s2h3dp3sp4hp4sp4np5c(4%20or%201)p6dppp]266|200[/hv]

Yes: splinter with 3-card ♥, 5+card ♣, GF

Are these arguments only valid at MP's? (especially the 1st one)

I didn't state it, but it is any 12-14

It started from looking at a hand with ♠A and ♥AKQ and I wondered how we could go to 6N played by S iso 6H played by North. Then I wondered how we could find out if North has ♣A iso ♥A or K. ...forgetting that the system only works if partner has 3 aces and ♥A. :rolleyes:

sorry, my imagination was running too fast. I was imaging that partner had 3 of 5 aces, including the S Ace and wondered how to know if 6N or 6H was the best contract. 1H-2C 2D-3H 3S-4D 4S-4N 5D-6H or 1H-2C 2D-3H 3S-4D 4H-4N 5D-6N

MP's [hv=pc=n&s=s2hj74dakqj62ck52]133|100[/hv] North opens 1♥ and opps are silent. If South bids 2♣ this is: 10+ with ♣s OR 3c♥ support and 10+. Partner will rebid 2♦=5c♥, 12(11)-14 HCP 1♥-2♣! 2♦-3♥ = slam-interest If you start with 2♦; - and rebid 3♦ that is GF - and 3♠ is splinter (1=3=5+=x) What is your plan?

Isn't it better to use 5M+1 as RKCB Isn't it better to use 5NT as Josephine. I'm trying to make a decision :)

Google doesn't translate it. This means the same as simple?

Suppose you have established a clear fit, but competition didn't allow RKC. Examples: 2C-(2D)-P-(4D) 5D/strong with both majors-5H ? 1S-(2D)-2NT/fit and GF-(5D) ? 1S-(2D)-4D/splinter-(5D) ? 3D/GF both majors-(5D)-5H-(P) ? Q: If you wanted an easy agreement in a one-sentence-rule then what is best?: - 1-over-1 RKC & 5NT asking extras - 1-over-1 RKC & 5NT Josephine - 1-over-1 RKC if already above 5M; otherwise it simply asks extras and then 5NT is RKC - all natural and cues, 5NT RKC ...and what actual agreements do you have? Thanks, Koen

Thanks Right, we also thought that I could have bid 3♠ cue iso 4♥.Bidding would then probably go: 2D-2H 3H-3S 3NT-4H - 3NT non-serious because 4C would promise 9 tricks (?) (The above is not 100% clear for me)I started with 2H because I thought that North would have a strong hand for opening 2D in 4th hand and didn't want to take away room from him to describe his hand. North can also have a good weak 2 (like 10-12), but I don't think I have enough to fear missing game when he has a good weak 2 in H? When I start with 2NT the bidding would go: 2D-2NT 4H (4H=semi forcing H)

Teams/IMP's [hv=pc=n&s=skq5ha5d742cq7542&n=sa62hkqj642daqca8&d=e&v=e&b=10&a=ppp2d(multi)p2h(relay)p3h(Semi-GF%20H)p4hppp]266|200[/hv] North Opened 2♦ and did rebid 3♥ to show a Semi-GF in H (8 or 9 tricks). South (me) was pessimistic and counted 2 (or 3) additional tricks and did bid 4♥. - How should the bidding continue after 3♥, or do you prefer another start? - Do you want to be in 6H (our start did put it in the wrong hand)?

It is a GF opening and responder has 0 to 11 pts. We don't have good agreements about FP, but we would not let the opps play 5D after they have first both passed and partner opened GF. So yes, it is a FP. Opener showed at least a 5-5, but I agree that responder very likely has a 4-card. This makes me wonder if I want to agree something with my partner about this situation :) Seems to be too specific, not frequent enough and too costly to have an agreement with misunderstandings.

Thanks a lot for the responses!!

What method would you use?2♣-(2♦)-p-(5♦) ?