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1x-(Pass)-1NT-(2Y) Pass-(Pass)-DBL 1x-(Pass)-1NT-(Pass) Pass-(2Y)-DBL Is it best to play these DBLs as TO or Penalty? (Or does it depend on x or Y; scoring and vulnerability) My partner prefers to play penalty by responder after he bid 1NT; I prefer TO (especially at MPs) Edit: 1NT is not forcing for us

It is important that you don't play small ♦

RHO played ♦Q, returned ♦7 and played ♦8 under his partners ♦J. With ♦Q87 he would have played Q,8,7 - so it looks that he has KQ87 LHO did lead ♦4, then played ♦9 and returned ♦J. You should ask how they lead (3th, 4th, ?), but it looks like he has ♦J94. With KJ94 he would have played 49KJ: returning the ♦K from KJ (the Q already played). I would play for distributions 1435-4342 or 2434-3343. Given that opps are weak I would not draw too much conclusions from the play and play LHO for 2434. ♥K, ♥ruff, ♣K, ♥ruff...you never know that RHO ruffs this ♥ :rolleyes:

[hv=pc=n&s=sKQJhJ7dKQ542cA64&n=sa9654hq52dt863c7&w=s83h3dcQ9&e=sT72hd7cJT853&d=n&v=0&b=37&k=s&a=pp1np2hp2spp3c3sppp&p=c2c7cKcAsks3S4S2SQS8S5S7SJH3SASt]400|300[/hv] Opps lead 3th/low; signal: Odd discards promising. Click Next to see play. What card do you play now?

&p=c4c7cjcqdad5d2d8dkd6d4dtd3dqd9c2h7hqh8h6djc3c5d7sas6s2s3sks7s5sj That part is doing the trick to add the play? Did you add it manually or is there a tool for it? (Note: When I open posts like this on my smartphone browser it crashes.)

I played it against Jack.This was the ending: ....♠Q4 ....♥K43 ♠.........♠T9 ♥T52......♥J ♣KT........♣86 ....♠8 ....♥A9 ....♣A9 As you noted the ♣9 is important and West is squeezed when you play ♠Q.

[hv=pc=n&s=s852ha96dak3caq95&n=sakq4hkq43dj942c7&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1dp2cp2hp2sp3sp4dp5dp5np6nppp]266|200[/hv] Opps lead 3th/low; signals udca. Lead card 1st; South card underlined; winner bold: 1: ♣4-7-J-Q 2: ♦A-5-2-8 3: ♦K-6-4-T 4: ♦3-Q-9-♣2 5: ♥7-Q-8-6 6: ♦J-♣3-♣5-♦7 7: ♠A-6-2-3 8: ♠K-7-5-J This is left: [hv=pc=n&s=s8ha9dca9&n=sq4hk43dc&d=w&v=0&b=8]266|200[/hv] Do you agree with the play till now? How do you continue?

I had the impression that other replies seemed to imply reinvite and was surprised by that

Should 5NT be a re-invite or pick a slam?

I play same defense as against weak 2M.

1C-2C - 2X=reverse type (extras) or stopper for 3NT - 2NT=18-19 - 3NT-13-14 - 3C=minimum with C - 3X=splinter; 12-14 or 18-19 3NT can be with doubleton, but also with 4cC. Often it will be short.

Thanks for the answer. I think you are an expert player (at least you have expert posts :) ), so I'm trying to take your advice to the heart, but not convinced. (I also read the other replies with interest) Here is where I'm not convinced. Opener can have: AQxx=KJxx=QJx=xx or Kxx=AQ=Qxx=QJxxx Over a 'natural' 4♣ opener will discourage and bid 4NT with the first hand & encourage by cueing 4H with the 2nd hand. Yes, It is VERY rare & that makes it also more difficult to remember. 4C followed by 4NT if opener encourages by cueing. Because we open short ♣ (2+c) it is maybe a good idea to use 4♦ always as 'minorwood', also for ♣? That allows me to still bid 4♣ if I want to very openers ♣ length.

I play DBL to show this hand

Thank you all for the answers Right. 1♣-2♣ 3NT-4♣ (1♣=2+card; 2♣ is inv min and 3NT is 13-14). This was a specific example of when minorwood does not apply for us, and I think it is best for us to keep it like that. The issue is more for similar auctions that are not explicitly defined in the system notes. An example that comes to mind: 1♣-1♥! 1NT-2♠! 3♣!-4♣ With: 1♣=2+card 1♥=♠ (T-Walsh) 1NT=denies 3c♠ (or 3444)...Therefor at least 4c♣ 2♠=Transfer ♣ 3♣=Would not accept invite in ♣ 4♣=RKC or setting fit? As indicated above 4♣ should be minorwood, but I hope we would both think it through when it happens ;) 1♣-(1♥)-2♥!-(3♥) Pass-(Pass)-4♣? 2♥=inv+ with ♣, but is ♣-fit fixed? It still can be a 2-5 fit (or even 2-4). 1♣-(1♥)-2♥!-(3♥) 4♣? We agreed that 4♣ by opener should normally be minorwood because ♣-fit is known to opener, but does it apply here? After a ♦-opening we have less problems because that shows a 4+card. Any support would set the fit. ....It is probably better if I discuss this with my partner :rolleyes: I think I prefer our current method, but we need some more discussion on when minorwood is on.

that is because we can open 1C with a 2 card. We want opener to bid 4NT after 4C when he is short.It would apply after 1D opening.

This could be a clever way to accuse someone of cheating without being censored.

In our current agreements, when we have only agreed the minor suit at the 4-level then we start cue bidding. When we have agreed the minor before then we can continue cue bidding by skipping 4m. Your suggested method is more clear, but has the disadvantage that you cannot start cueing if minor was not agreed before 4m.

My partner and I play minorwood when the minor was agreed before. We open short clubs, and therefor we don't play 1♣-2♣ 3NT-4♣ as minorwood. This can sometimes be confusing in competition. e.g 1♣-(1♥)-1♠-(2♥) Pass-(Pass)-3♥-(Pass) 3NT-(Pass)-4♣ I think that we don't play this as minorwood, because the ♣-fit was not agreed before 4♣. Sometimes this is too difficult for us and we are confused if the 4m bid is minorwood or not. Minorwood sometimes is confusing, but I think it is better then RKC. (Is it?). Question: What is good and easy way for asking keycards for minor fit? (or maybe we can simplify the minorwood we play? (I think kickback or redwood if even more difficult) Remark: I didn't find a method where 4 in other minor is RKC, so that probably is not a good idea?

Thanks for the answers. Here is the full hand: [hv=pc=n&s=skqjt8765hd986cj7&w=s42h9864dt743c542&n=s3haqj72daq5cat98&e=sa9hkt53dkj2ckq63&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=4sp4np6h(1%20Ace%20and%20H%20void)p6sdppp]399|300[/hv] Lead was ♦4 and I finessed. RHO returned ♣K. Result: -1 - Do you agree with 4NT? - I had no other option then play DQ?

IMP's [hv=pc=n&s=skqjt8765hd986cj7&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=4sp4n(RKC)p]133|200[/hv] Do you agree with Opening 4S? Remark: You also play Namyats. 4♦ would have been AKQ 8th and maybe something next to it. Do you have enough to bid 6H to show your void and 1 Key card?

Thanks a lot for your interest! LHO is 5512 without ♣Q and the robot will ruff ♥ leads from dummy with middle ♦s if you cash both top ♣ early. (That is what I did).But still you can win if you don't play the ♣A too soon. If you start ruffing ♥ (RHO has to ruff with middle cards or you cash ♣A and cross ruff) and ♠. I come down to: [hv=pc=n&s=st9hdk3c86&w=sQJxhKd7c9&n=shTdAJcAJ7&e=sA8hd62cQT]399|300[/hv] Now you play to ♣A, ruff a ♥ and a ♣for RHO's Q. I wondered if I should have found this. Cashing the ♣A early was certainly not good. I did that on the general principle to cash winners before starting a cross-ruff. I hoped to make my ♦3 as well. I still don't fully understand it :) I wonder how easy this looks and how complex it is in reality :) EDIT: If anyone could explain me how to reason to find the correct line at the table then that would make me happy :)

Lho had small doubleton club

East started with ♥6 and then ♥7 (showing an even number - udca). West started with ♥8 and then ♥2 (showing an odd number - udca).

East has the ♣Q, You will not need the ♣-finesse You come to your hand with ♣K and ruff a ♠. You can only come back to your hand with a ♥-ruff and not be able to finesse the ♥.

[hv=pc=n&s=st943h4dkq83ck865&n=shaqt95dajt4caj73&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=p1sd3c(bergen%20raise%3B%204cS%3B%206-9)3d3h(4cH)4n(RKC%20D)d(penalty)p(1%20or%204%20of%205)p5c(D%20Q%3F)d(pen)5s(D%20Q%20and%201%20K)p6ddppp]266|200[/hv] LHO leads ♠K. Opps are Computer programs and play udca; most of the time very honest. ♠K ♦4 ♠5 ♠3 You cross to ♣K and successfully finesse ♥Q. ♣3 ♣T ♣K ♣4 ♥4 ♥8 ♥Q ♥6 ♥A ♥7 ♣5 ♥2 When should you cash ♣A?