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1♥-1♠ 1NT-2♣ 2♦-? 2♣=crowhurst 2♦=minimum Responder now bids: 2♥=3c♥, non-forcing (invite hand) 3♥=3c♥, GF What is the advice on the number of Spades that responder should have? 4c♠ searching for 4-4 fit; OR any 5c♠; OR good 5c♠ searching for light slam, ...?

21 times in fact. 6NT-1 happened only once. 0 for bottom, 2 for 2nd lowest, 4 for 3th lowest If N doesn't lead D then everybody will finish S.

7S: 1x 6NT+1: 8x 6S+1: 4x 6H: 1x 3NT+4: 2x 4S+3: 2x 2S+5: 1x 6NT-2: 2x 6NT-3: 1x

I entered hand and bidding in Jack with D2 lead and analyzed 1000 deals.(Jack will not take into account that other tables can be in 6NT!) Jack plays SAK and HAKQ. Not sure how important the cards played by NS are for Jack (if he believes that it is distribution). Expected scores: T1: DA: 740.9 DQ: 520.8 => Play DA, T2: S5: 754.3 CK: 730.5 H: 729.9 => T2 W: SK/A: 594.1 ST: 373.0 => Play SK, T3: CQ/A: 574.7 HA: 572.3 SA: 558.0 => Play CA, T4: HA: 585.5 SA: 549.6 CQ: 511.3 => Play HA, T5: SA: 520.7 CQ: 485.3 H3: 471.3 => Play SA, T6: H3: 553.4 C2: 473.9 => Play H3 to Q Followed by HK: -1

[hv=pc=n&s=sq98hjt54dj9cj976&w=sakjt43ha3dt4caq2&n=s762h86dk7632ct54&e=s5hkq972daq85ck83&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1hp1sp2dp3cp3np6sppp]399|300[/hv] North did in fact lead S2 and I claimed for 6S+1 Score for EW: 19/40 A lot of pairs were in 6NT and one even in 7S! (I wondered what was best play if LHO would have lead D2

[hv=pc=n&s=s9hq4dk9643cqj854&w=s654hkj98652djc63&n=sat32hat7dt87cak7&e=skqj87h3daq52ct92&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=pp1np3nppp]399|300[/hv] Result: 3NT-1 Score EW: 30/40 Other scores EW: 3NT N = scores 10/40 3Hx W -1 scores 15/40 4Hx W -3 scores 0/40

We don't have that agreement and certainly not 2nd position Vulnerable

[hv=pc=n&s=s93hj72daq76432c7&w=st4ha643djtcj9862&n=sq85hkdk98cakqt53&e=sakj762hqt985d5c4&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=1s3dp3nppp]399|300[/hv] Result: 3NT-4 Score: 29/40 Top score 4NTX-5. The score for 4H+1 is 32/40 (No one played 4H= ) 4NT-5 scores 35/40 for EW; 5D-2 26/40; 5H-1 11/40 (No one played 5Dx)

I remember that the bidding was in fact: 4S-4NT 5NT-? 5NT=2 aces of 5 and a void. How do you continue now?

[hv=pc=n&s=sa8732hj8dacj9875&w=sjhk963dqt75432c4&n=sq94hq754dj9cat63&e=skt65hat2dk86ckq2&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=1np2c(puppet%20to%202D)p2dppp]399|300|MP's[/hv] Result: 2D+2: 50% NS scored 4 times (5D-1, 3NT-2) EW scores: 4Sx-5 N, 2x 3SX-2 N, 2H-2 N, 3NT+2E, 2NT+2, Rest is in D making 4. Seems like 1NT pass would give a good score.

I changed it to 3D :)

MP's[hv=pc=n&s=sakjt43ha3dt4caq2&n=s5hkq972daq85ck83&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1hp1sp2d(forcing)p3c(4SF%20%5BGF%5D)p3np6sppp]266|200[/hv] 3S iso 3C by South would have been forcing in their system. 3C was a misbid. West leads ♦2 (3th/5th). How do you play?

I didn't get support at the bar. Happy I get it her from our star :rolleyes:. I thought that 4♥ as control for ♦ was very unlikely (Why not 4♣ or 4♦ then?) and I thought that 4♥ was passable. ("some" support from you because I didn't think it showed a 2c♥).

I'll add following options in OP:- 2♠=♣ OR Invite with ♦ - 3♣=Weak or GF with ♦

So, 6S for you?

You open 1S and it goes: 1S-(3D)-P-(3NT) ? What now?

Suppose you don't know what 3H is and even not that it is forcing :) (That was what South told me)

[hv=pc=n&e=sthaj96dakj6cak86&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=4sp4n(RKC)p5h(2%20of%205%20aces%3B%20not%20SQ)p]133|200|MP's[/hv] What do you bid now? If you are only allowed to make 1 more bid, what is it then?

[hv=pc=n&w=s654hkj98652djc63&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=p]133|200|MP's[/hv] Pass or preempt? 2nd hand Red at MP's

[hv=pc=n&e=sakj762hqt985d5c4]133|100|MP's[/hv] What do you open? EDIT: Because 1S seems obvious. If you 1S then it goes: 1S-(3D)-P-(3NT) ? 3D explained as weak. What now?

[hv=pc=n&s=sjhk963dqt75432c4&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1np]133|200|MP's[/hv] 1NT=15-17 (can sometimes be an upgraded 14 and sometimes 5cM) You play some kind of relays after 1NT. - 2♣ is either weak with ♦ or some other inv+ hands. - You don't have regular stayman. You can invite with 4cH by transferring to H (2D) and bidding 2NT. If you bid 2D followed by 3D then this would be 4cH;5cD and GF. You can not show 4cH; 5cD and inv+ - Pass 1NT EDIT: following additional options: - 2♠=♣ OR Invite with ♦ - 3♣=Weak or GF with ♦

We had a discussion at the bar (so I don't have a hand for this) 1H-2D 3D-3S (Edit: changed typo 2D to 3D) 3NT-4H 1H=5+cH 2D=4+cD; 10+ 3D=4+cD; Does not promise extra's What is 4H?: - Proposal to play if opener is min with pnts in C (e.g.: 4351 with slam interest) - Cue for D

I play 1M-1NT is non-forcing: 6-9 or 3cM 3-7. I think it is more preemptive then you'd expect it to be.

These are our agreements for some and my own thoughts resulting from it: Forcing by agreement Proposing to my partner that this is non-forcing Even if a direct 2S is non-forcing, I thought that this one could also be non-forcing? Strong, but non-forcing. With a stronger hand you can now bid 3C or 3S? Forcing, Fit-bids then?

Question triggered by other post. Are following sequences forcing and what do they show?: (1C)-1H-(P)-1S (1C)-1H-(2C)-2S (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL (Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL (Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S and how do you play these jumps?: (1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S (1C)-1H-(2C)-3S Remark: In fact we play transfer (1D transfer to H) and Rubens advances, but I don't think that makes a difference for the given sequences?