flytoox

I will choose the simple line by drawing one round trump and then play spades, planning to ruff high one round spade. This will fail if spades break 5-1. I dont think establishing club will help you, as you are still one trick short.

This is a standard 1N bid. Pass would be too conservative.

A classic hand which a beginner and a really good player will pass but good players will choose to act.

I am in the camp of 2C. If pd can raise, that would be very sweet. If pd bids sth else, I can cope it too.

While 2S doesnt promise extra, it doesnt deny extra either. I think this is a textbook 2S, whatever it shows, with or without extra. Your diamond is too lousy, your spade suit is worthy emphasis. After 2S, responder will bid 3C, and you can return to 3D. Now pd can bid 3H and now you can bid 3N. Of coz you can try 3N after 3C, but i dont think it is right to hide the fit forever.

pd wont have two aces white vs red. I bid 5H. If they bid 6D I dbl.

I would bid 4C. 5C is too much. Dont hang your pd when he balances. He cannot have much for 3C. Making 4C is certainly a good score. If Opp bid 4H, I plan to dbl them. Note that pd cannot have xxxx,xx,x,kxxxxx. Pd must have some diamonds.

I know it is dangerous, but I still vote for Pass. My shape is really bad. And I have two defensive tricks. And pd's minor cards rate to sit behind dummy's.

3C is the only choice. No second option.

If 4N is 2-suited what then 5m bid means? 1-suited? Isn't better to reverse these meanings? Then 4N is to play WITH LONG MINOR. It's quite natural 'cause with balanced hand I would simply double! So - if 4N shows long minor then 2-suited hands can be described with bids: 5♣ - ♣ + higher suit, 5♦ - ♦ + ♥. And this hand shows which treatment is better. Different situation is after 1♥ - (4♠) - ? Here 4N is for t/o - either minor+fit or both minors (and short spades in both cases). Sergey. Hehe, I like this logic.

I think one advantage of 14-16NT is it takes pressure of 2c over 1D opening. In this case opener can rebid 2N without worrying that pd might pass it. So responder can bid 2C over 1D with balance 10-11HCP.

I presumed people would pass with only 5 clubs rather than rebid it. You could easily have a 5-1 and are unlikely to have an 8 card fit. Do you also rebid a major after 1H p 1N p ? with only 5? I don't see any need as you have already shown 5. Pass is also a weak bid. This is my thought too. I think 3C should be read as signoff but doesnot mind pd bid 3N. It should show 6 cards suit. It would be silly to play 5-2 fit at three level.

I vote for 4H. If you bid 3H, LHO is likely to bid 3N. THen you have another problem. Leave the last guess to Opp.

I like 2D. If my diamonds are xx then I probably will just bid 1N, no matter I have spade stopper or not.

I like this analysis and I vote for 5D too.

I am with Justion on this issue. I never rebid five card suit. Besides the possibility of playing awful 5-1 fit, there is another possibility, i.e., pd often has to raise with doubleton and some invitatioal strength. In this case, you will play 3m with 5-2 fit.

It is so funny to see some say pd should bid 5S over 5H with such a poor balanced 5332 hand, yet they think balancer should pass 5H. What a logic. I can understand comments that pd should consider dbl. After all he has sth for his 4S call. 5S? Never in a million year. I would bid 5S after 5H for pretty much same reason as Mauro gave. Justin's argument is very instructive, but I will still bid 5S. A side note. I really dont like comments such as "opps are a weak pair....". If they are weak, why dont you duck HA to give he a chance to error? Are you sure he will try to drop HJ? Actually, if you trust your pd, ducking HA has two ways to win. One is that declarer might finesse HJ. Another possibility is that if pd has xx , he may give you a suit preference signal. And it might avoid your embrassment of underleading from sapdes. I am not saying duck HA is necessary right play. I just think focusing on ourselves mistake is more productive.

If N-S are familiar pd, adjusting the score is not unreasonable. Ｉcertainly would bid 4S with north' s hand. 4M usually scores better than 3N.

I vote for 4N. If clubs can run, we are counting 9 sure tricks and we need one finesse to make 4. IF clubs cannot run then pd need a side suit entry in that case either 4N makes or 3N goes down as well. I agree 2N as game force inquiry is not a good treatment.

2D showing 4d5c is not playable. You will often end up with 3C, unnecessary one level hgher than it should be.

I am a passer. Dbl is wrong in shape, and I dont expect pd holds a heart stack when I have the heart queen. If I bid 2C, opp will find their spade partscore, or even a game.

Hi all, Completely agree : 3 ♠ is invitational, showing a good 6-4. So if I have to hang somebody, I should choose West, because he have to accept the game with a near maximum hand (I imagine 1Nt is 6-10), a support in spades (the 10 !) and good diamonds. Cute! Some bid 3s invite with this hand while I make an advanced cuebid slam try with 3H!. Guess you misunderstood it. What we meant(at least me) is that 3S is invitational, not that this hand should bid 3S to invite.

I agree 3S as invitational but not forcing. Pd can pass but are encouraged to go on.

No, I didnot by pass 5143 or 5134 with 1S opening and 2H overcall. In that sequence I agree with you it is better to play t/o dbl. This is why I say it is equally sensible to play either way. Of coz, for simplicity sake perhaps it is better to play same system and hence all dbl are t/o.

I didnot say dbl Should be for penalty. I just say it is equally sensible to play dbl as penalty. After pd's 1N response to your 1M opening, he usually have cards/length in minor suits. If RHO's overcall is 2S, then I think it is far better to play dbl as t/o. If you hold a 15-17 balanced hand, you can open 1N. If it is 4531, playing t/o wont do you any good. Pd is short in spade. Only if you are 3514 and RHO overcall 2D, takeout dbl will be better than penalty. If you are 3541 and RHO overcall 2C, you can just bid 2D rather than dbl. The chance pd is void in one of minor after 1H-1N is extremely unlikely. As for ' they will make they doubled contracts more than you will get 500', it is more an empirical issue.