MP. All vul ♠A9x ♥A ♦Kxx ♣KQTxxx pa pa 1♣ Dbl 1♥ pa ??? Note: You are playing natural weak-2 openings and even 2♥ after double would have been some kind of weak-2 hand.
IMP. All vul. 1♣ 3♠ pass pass Dbl pass: What means now responder's: - 4♠ - 4NT - 5♣? And what will you rebid on each of these bids holding: ♠Jx ♥Ax ♦AK ♣AKTxxxx?
Expert casual partner. ♠Axx ♥Axx ♦Kxx ♣Qxxx 1♠ - pass - pass - 2♣ 2♥ - 2NT* - pass - 4NT!!! * I know you may not agree with 2NT but that was the actual bidding! What you expect from 4NT?
MP. All love. Expert partner, no special agreement about support doubles. ♠AK63 ♥KQ5 ♦6 ♣KQ1085 1♣ - pass - 1♥ - 1♠ ??? What is a typical hand for bidding: - Dbl - 1NT - 2S - 2NT
Very good, Ben! :unsure: Since 2♦ cannot be natural it must be offering both major contracts, presumibly a 4♠3♥ pattern; responder to choose. With 3334 I think it is much better to pass (or bid a simple 2♥, depending of honor location). Playing this way partner has a full control of hand and can very accurately judge the best contract. I think 2♦ is a clear-cut bid with our hand!
I don't understand these 4NT bids. Partner opened 1♣, not 1♦. The "pick a minor" bid works better if you have some 1453 hand or similar. With 1444 it is clear that we shall play in clubs.
South 110% I cannot understand for what should north be blamed? He bid diamonds and spades and he has 6♦ and 4♠ in a good hand. His partner could hold some 4414 or similar weakish hand (6-7 hcp) when it is always nice to overbid them if they reach 2♥. Really strange question for an "Advanced+ bridge" subforum. Except if north is known as bluffer and south thought his partner was faking the 1♦ overcall. He he...