Poky

Would a double of 2♦ by opener show 3♠s (support double)? No. It would be simply a negative double, showing extra values and shape, but often holding 3♠. Second question is what would a balancing 2NT (instead of a double) here show? A natural ~11 balanced invitation.

[hv=d=w&v=e&s=skqj53hdat65cakq9]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♥ - pa - 2♥ - Dbl 4♥ - pa - pa - ??? What is the best bid and why? Ty, Poky

IMPs, all love. 1♣ - 1♦ - 1♠ - 2♦ pa - pa - Dbl* - pa 2♥ - pa - 2♠ * Negative double Describe a typical hand you would expect partner is holding for his bidding... Ty, Poky

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=saq10hj6dqj85cakj4]133|100|Scoring: IMP You are playing strong club (16+ unb, 17+ bal)[/hv] pass - (pass) - 1♣* - (2♥) Dbl** - (pass) - ??? * 16+ HCP ** Negative Please, comment answers... Ty, Poky

It seems LHO has 2227 or 3217 shape. 2227 is more probably cause a diamond wasn't led. Just in case LHO may err to cover with K10x, I'll lead the ♠9. If that isn't covered, I'll play the ♠J. If this surrend a trick to RHO then I'll ruff a ♥ high. Leading the ♠Q is risky cause I can surrend 2 trump tricks (singleton ♠K and ♠10 overruff).

Responder: ♠Q10xxx ♥K ♦Jxx ♣7xxx Opener: ♠KJ ♥AQxxxxx ♦Ax ♣AQ You are playing 2/1 without semi-forcing openings (2♣=GF, 2♦=multi, 2M=two-suiter) 1♥ - 1♠ 3♣ - Pass

Responder: Kxxx Jx Axx Qxxx Opener: AQxx KQx x AK10xx 1♣ - 1♠ 3♦* - 4♦ (Dbl) pass (pass) Rdbl** (pass) 4♥ 4NT*** 5♠ - Pass * Splinter (without special agreements) ** 1st control *** RKCB for S

RHO opens 1♦ and you hold: ♠954 ♥Q1074 ♦J862 ♣K7 After a relay sequence (LHO only asks, RHO answers) they end up in 4♠ and you are put on lead knowing that RHO has 11-13 HCP with the 3433 pattern (four hearts). Dummy will obviously have 5+♠. IMPs, all vul. Give ratings 0-10 for every lead. Tnx.

For 2♣ bidders! What to to after: a) 1♦ 1♠ pass pass Dbl pass pass 2♣ Dbl Rdbl pass ??? :P 1♦ 1♠ pass pass Dbl pass pass 2♣ Dbl 2♥ Dbl ???

IMPs. They vul. 1♦ - 1♠ - pass - pass Dbl - pass - pass - ??? ♠xx ♥xx ♦xx ♣KQ108754 What now?

The auction goes: 1S - (Dbl) - 4NT

I think that after 1C-(3D) 3M should be played as GF, let say some shapely 11+ with goodish suit. So. this hand is borderline between: a) Dbl and rebid a NF 3S/4S, ;) 3S and: passing 3NT, probably passing 4H, rebidding 4S else. Hard to tell which action is the best.

Pass - 10 Dbl - 3 1NT - 0 Very poor offensive prospects, but very good defensive values. On long run pass will surely produce the best (or, better to say: the least worst) results!

1) Pass Lead: small heart. Declarer probably has a long running club suit and a diamond stopper. I hope partner has hA + another ace. 2) Pass What else? 4C could be too expensive and isn't sure they have 4H or 4S. Let see what will happen!

The whole board was: KJx KJx x AJxxx 6 AQxx AQ104 xxxx K8653 AQxx Q52 - 10xxxx xx J K109xx

I'm pretty sure you were North. :D Playing some naturalish system, I would bid it this way: 1S 2S - 9 losers 3H - trial 4S - accepted 5C - cue 5H - cue, no D-cue 6S - take a shot!

Pass - not my style, but understandable if you play so 1H - not my style, but understandable looking at vulnerability, much better to open 3C (nice pressure bid) or 1S (nice tactical bid) 4H - very bad bid, too good hand with too many defense, making a wrong picture of entire hand. Too much unilateral, looking at vulnerability. The right bid with this hand is a clear 2NT (intending to raise to 4H if nothing special happens), taking place and describing our hand accurately - we have two aces. The Dbl would be bad cause gives opponents room to introduce their suits at low levels. 5H - a pure catastrophe, if this hand earlier choose to bid a tactical 4H, now he has a clear Dbl bid, whatever it means (save suggesting - when partner has a psych/light opener or penalty - when partner has something), so partner can still choose the best action... Blame: N: 85% - persistent unilateral blindfold bidding, without a bit of table presence or discipline... S: 15% - opening a doubtful 1H...

You have: 6 AQ104 K8653 Q52 Bidding, all Vul, IMPs: Pard You 1D pass 1H 2C 2H 3C 4H pass pass 4S pass pass Dbl All pass Your lead? And why?

1C 1D 2H - lowest reverse is usually used to show a GF one-suiter 3H 4D - showing support for D 4H - cuebid, fit estabilished 4NT - BW for D 5H - 2 of 5 6C - choice of slams 6D

Another way of playing it is: a) Bidding Dbl always with a strong hand (no much difference between 3 and 4 LT, this is always a very strong one-suited hand) B) Bidding the own suit (if allowed) with a maximal and competitive weak-2 bid. With a acol-2 in minor I like to open 1C/1D cause never occured to me the bidding 1C/1D - All pass when I have a strong and unbalanbced hand. The advantage of this approach is that you are less vulnerable in bidding against preempts. Example: 1C - (2H) - Dbl - (5H) Dbl = T/O showing interest to compete, so, a very strong hand with long clubs but not a clear GF Pass = even with [17-19] bal, expecting a reopening double to punish them 5NT = acol-2 but with heart-void, thus - inviting 7m, lets say [Ax - AQxx AKQJxxx] Much harder to bid these hands when the bidding goes 2D - (2/3H) - Dbl - (5H)... What now? If you double (supposing a acol-2 in minor) how can your partner on some difficult hands know exactly what is your suit and evaluate accurately his hand? Even harder if your 2D bid can contain some kind of balanced hands, [20-21] or [22-23] or something similar. After the 1D opening is even easier 'cause in 1st/2nd this opening is always "unbalanced" (except 6322 and 5422 hands).

Hmmm. An interesting approach. How do you handle competion to separate between these two possible holdings in a competitive auction, particularly if your LHO passes, your partner tries to "get out" in your major, and RHO can work out that you must have an acol bid because a) he is weak, B) his partner didn't take action, and c) your partner was trying to sign off. So RHO throws in a bid, lets say a pschy double or a free bid. How do you separate between a competitive 3 of the major bid and an acol 3 of a major bid. Do you never show your suit or compete with the weak two hand after the first bid? Or imagine... 2D-X-3H-4D ? Is 4H/4S by you "competing" or showing the Acol 2 bid. I play weak two in MAJOR or acol 2 in minor. So when I bid a minor even in comp, it shows the acol hand, and whenever I bid the major it show the weak two hand. This is harder to disrupt, particularily with favorable vulnerability pscyhs. The way I play after 2D-(Dbl)-3H for opener is strictly forbidden to bid further with a weak-2 hand 'cause the 3H bid by responder is preempive and can be of tactical nature, a simple pressure bid, very often risky and off-shaped - specially when non-vul. I should never punish partner for his bids. So, in this situation, my 4H/4S bid is showing a acol-2 bid, about 4 LT, inviting partner towards slam. My Dbl would be for T/O showing a GF hand with major, 3 or less LT. Any double by the 2D-hand is for T/O. I don't have a clear distinction between 4NT and Dbl in this situations (they are veery rare B)) but I think that the Dbl should show more shontress in opp's suit (maybe exactly void? who knows!?) and 4NT some other kind of forcing hand. If responder want to show willigness to compete in my major-suit he bids Rdbl after 2D-(Dbl), conventionally. I think that knowing initaially the partner's pattern (always 6M) gives us a great advantage in anticipation-bidding. B)

I'm not fond of systems that force you to relay with all GF hands, i think that natural bidding has a lot of merit...it's good to have the choice wether to ask p to describe his hand or to bid naturally and describe your hand. Felix Sure. But after the initial Relay you can bid your suits (diamonds or clubs) naturally or continue the Relay. The merit of the Relay is that the responder's hand remains undiscovered nad much harder to defend against it... B)

I play a specific kind of Multi-2D: a) Weak-2 in H/S B) One-suited acol-2 or better ih H/S

I use this structure and find it very powerful: After 1H opening: 1S - relay, 5-11, 0-4S 1NT - 5+S 2C - GF relay 2D - TRF support a) 10-11 BAL with 3H B) 8-11 with 3H UNB c) 6-8 mini SPL d) 9-11 with any void, 4+H 2H - support, up to 9 LT 2S - 4/5H, BAL, 7-11 2NT - GF, 4+H, any SGL 3m - 6+m, 8-11 INV. good suit 3H - preemptive 3NT - 12+, any void, 4+H 3S/4C/4D - 9-11 SGL, 4+H 4H - 6-8, 5/6H UNB After 1S opening: 1NT - 5-11, semi-forcing 2C - GF relay 2D - TRF for hearts a) 8-11 with goog 6H B) GF with good 5+H 2H - TRF support a) 10-11 BAL with 3S B) 8-11 with 3S UNB c) 6-8 mini SPL d) 9-11 with any void, 4+S 2S - support, up to 9 LT 2NT - 4/5H, BAL, 7-11 3m - 6+m, 8-11 INV. good suit 3H - GF, 4+S, any SGL 3S - preemptive 3NT - 12+, any void, 4+S 4C/4D/4H - 9-11 SGL, 4+S 4S - 6-8, 5/6S UNB It was inspired by Bocchi-Duboin notes and little simplified! B)

The worst two bids are South's 3H and North's Pass on Dbl. Even if you play Strong Jump Shifts (a very useful auto-preemptive tool) South's hand isn't this kind of hand (should be some long, strong and solid one-suiter). Even if this sequence is undiscussed, North's pass on 4Cx is a bit of obvious antibridge. Blame: North - 51% South - 49%.