Poky
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All vul. MP. ♠- ♥8xxx ♦AQJ9x ♣Q9xx 1♣ 1♦ 1♠ pass pass ?? "Huh! What is 1♠, NF?" "Yes, it is NF, 10+ hands start with double." "You should alert it." "OK. Sorry." Your bid is?
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1♦* pass 1♠ 2♣ Dbl** pass ??? * Unbalanced ** TO ♠9xxxx ♥AK87 ♦x ♣QJx
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IMP. All vul. ♠AKT7 ♥QJx ♦AQ8xx ♣A 1♦ 2♠ pass pass ??? Explain your bid.
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MatchPoint. All vul. Opener: ♠- ♥AK9x ♦QJ9xx ♣J9xx Responder: ♠J9876 ♥QJxx ♦x ♣10xx 1♦ 1♠ pass 2♠ Dbl 3♠ Dbl pass pass pass 3♠x= -730
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A/Q attitude, K=count/unblock leads vs. NT
Poky replied to Stephen Tu's topic in Expert-Class Bridge
I like Duboin-Bocchi's scheme very much: A= asks attitude K= asks unblock of Q/J or count (AKJ10+ or KQ109+) Q= KQ(J/10/9)+, AQJx+ or QJ(10/9)+ J= natural or QJx (can be HJ10x+) 10= natural (can be H109x+) 9= natural (can be H98x+) From AKQx you probably lead the Q to hear an echo for J. -
1) 2♦ 3♦ would be a bad bid because my suit is not so good and I have very good club support. No need to hurry. 2) 3♥ Very tough problem. Double is out of question. I am too weak for 4♦ (plus, this bid wrongsides 4♥ and makes impossible to play 3NT). So, 3♥ gives most chances to play the right game from the right hand. 3) 4♦ Having an ace, partner will raise. Without ♦A, 3NT has no chances. 4) 2♠ Natural, constructive, 9-13. Playing in spades or clubs is surely better than hearts. With a good hand I expect partner to rebid 2NT - so I will follow with 3♣. 5) 4NT Checking if we can make 7♠ (5NT answer= 2 KC plus ♦void) 6) Double Take-out. Good hand with diamond and spades. Says nothing about heart holding. 7) 2♣ At least, this bid can prevent the most dangerous lead against 3NT. In other cases, I will have spade support. 8) ♠K Preventing a blockage when partner has ♠xxxxx and hoping to pin ♠Q singleton. Alternatives are: ♠9, ♠J, ♠2 and ♥A (in this order).
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I prefer the natural approach: Dbl= decent hand with 3♥ or any good hand with rebid and short spades 2NT= invitational with 6♦ and stopper 3♣= 5♦5♣, decent hand, say 14-16, not forcing 3♦= competitive, decent hand 3♥= 4♥, weak hand 3♠= GF with 4♥ or ♠void 3NT= solid diamonds, stopper, say 15-17
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In my opinion, Garozzo's structure is the best: 1♠-1NT 2♣: 2♦= 8+ 2♥= 5+♥, weak (usually misfitting in spades) 2♠= 2♠, weak 2NT= 5+♦, weak (usually misfitting in spades) 3♣= 6+♣, weak (usually misfitting in spades) This way, you can bid 2NT with 1354 and 1255 and safely stop in 3♣ when opener holds a bad hand with clubs. 1435/1444 shapes remain a problem, probably a 2♠ rebid working best here (or a faked GF with 6-7 HCP).
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1NT showing 5+♣ with 7+, followed by 2♥. Natural bidding.
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IMP. All love. Pass pass pass ??? ♠- ♥A10xx ♦xx ♣KQJ10xxx Explain your decision.
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IMP. All vul. ♠Q9x ♥- ♦108xxx ♣KQJxx pass 3♥ Dbl pass ??? * Obviously, 3C is a typo and I cannot correct it. Treat 3C as 3S.
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Nope. This pair was playing pretty simply methods. Neither the 5♠ bid would have been an ask for the ♥Q.
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Sorry. My fault. The right response to 4NT is 5♦, obviously.
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MP. All love. 4♥ 4NT* 5♦ 5NT! 6♦ 6♥ ??? * RKCB ! Ask 4 kings ♠x ♥AQ10xxxx ♦- ♣K9xxx
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IMP. We vul. Pass (3♦) ??? ♠Q98xx ♥AK ♦Jx ♣KQJx
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[hv=d=s&v=b&n=s8643ha6dj3cak987&s=sakqhkjt9dt82cj62]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1NT 2♣ 2♥ 3NT[/hv] Lead: ♠J - ♠3 - ♠5 [small=enc.] - ??? Play the play and try to get 9+ tricks!!! P.S. 1NT was 15-17 but you opened a little light! ;)
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North 100%. Pass after 3♥ is OK, but after 2nd double - 4♠ is the right bid.
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(pass) 1♥ (1♠) pass (2♥)* ??? * Cue, 9-11 with 3♠ What is now: 1) Dbl, 2) 2♠, 3) 2NT, 4) 3♣/3♦, 5) 3♥, 6) 3♠?
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1) 2♠ - pushing opps to 3♦ 2) ♣K 3) 5♥ - intending to bid 7♠ if I hear for a club control 4) Pass - hoping this will make
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What I noticed is, GIB always uses XX as one-suited runout after 1NT-X, no matter of HCP. If so, it seams only the explanation was wrong. "Any 5+carder suit" would be enough.
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What happenned? I bid 2♥ and played there when partner held... ♠A10xxx ♥x ♦KQx ♣AKQx ...making almost a dummy reversal for 2♥+1 where 5♦ is the best strain and almost six can be made. What do you think: should partner have bid 2NT as invitational 18-19 hand or is pass good (fearing a minimal 1633 hand)?
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Opponent declares 3NT. You play Lavinthal discards. You lead a club and this kills declarer's only stopper (that becomes pretty obvoius), so your clubs become cashable. Declarer runs high diamonds and good discarding is necessary. In these circumstances what means: 1) high spade then low spade, 2) low heart then high heart. Explain. TY.
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1♠ 1NT 2♣* ??? * 11-15 with 5♠4♣ or 16+ any ♠x ♥AJxx ♦Jxxxx ♣xxx You cannot rebid 2♦ 'cause this is artificial and promises 8-11 HCP. So, what do you bid and why?
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This one is very easy. 2♠ 4NT pass 6♦ pass 7♦ When you have a minor two-suiter the best you can do is - bid it!
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IMP. We vul. ♠K10x ♥x ♦KJ98x ♣A10xx 1♦ 4♥ Dbl* pass ??? * takeout What is your bid and explain why?
