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If you play T-Walsh then what do you prefer to open with 4=4 minors, 1♦ or 1♣? If 12-14 [hv=pc=n&s=sk52hq2dkj62ckj62]133|100[/hv] or 18-19 [hv=pc=n&s=skj2hq2dakj2ckj62]133|100[/hv]

both hands and the bidding: [hv=pc=n&s=sht865dqj3cakqt65&n=skj7h2dakt92cj732&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=2sp4sppp]233|200[/hv] Missed 6♣. I wondered how far South should stretch, knowing that North will have some ♠-length and probably pass it out?

[hv=pc=n&s=sht865dqj3cakqt65&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=2sp4s]133|200[/hv] Assume that it is IMPs. What is your call? (is it different at MPs)

Thank you for the answer We are generally happy about it and don't plan stop playing it. Did you stop it because it was giving more disadvantages than advantages? We play OS and in the next trick(s) suit preference. Because we don't give count, we lead count from sequence: highest from even, second from odd (HESO). Therefore we cannot make the distinction in the lead to ask a different thing. Because we lead HESO (see above) responder often knows if it is ok to continue the suit or not.=> If we still play OS by agreement then responder can lie about it if he thinks it is better, but maybe it is better not to play OS by agreement in this case: this avoids confusion for the opening leader concerning the OS-suit. certainly true. You could even think that this disadvantage compensate for the advantage. The number of times that opening leader needs to know about OS is the same as he needs to know about opening suit. ...but our feeling is that this is not true, we still think that OS suit is more important. (e.g: if lead was from AKQ, if dummy is short in lead suit,..) We also still play OS in this case. ...that is making the agreement easier: always OS. ....and therefor I'm reluctant to not play OS by agreement when dummy has Qxx(x).

Not really what I asked.. 1♥ is transfer for ♠. This handles the normal 1♠ overcall, but is unlimited or can be 2-suited. ..What are you bidding with the 2 hands in OP given your or our agreements? For us: (1♣)- X: takeout, including standard 1NT overcall 1♦/1♥: transfer 1♠: 4c♠, longer ♦ 1NT: ♥ and ♦, longer ♦ 2♣: both majors, 4-4 possible (depending on strength) 2♦: diamonds, IJO 2M: natural, WJO (1♦)- X: takeout, including standard 1NT overcall 1♥/1♠: natural 1NT: ♣ and ♥, normally longer ♣ 2♣: 4c♠, longer ♣ 2♦: both majors 2M: natural, WJO 3♣: IJO

thank you for the answer :)

(1♣)-? Your options: - 1♠=4c♠, longer ♦ - DBL=takeout What do you bid with following hands?: [hv=pc=n&s=sat86hj85dakq83c4]133|100[/hv] I prefer 1♠ (and DBL for TO later if possible (f.i 2♣/3♣) ); my partner prefers a direct DBL [hv=pc=n&s=skt52haq2da6432c5]133|100[/hv] Here we both prefer DBL

If you have agreed to play obvious switch. A small card promises A or K in the obvious switch color and a high card denies it. Is this agreement always valid or do you have exceptions when OS does not apply by agreement? F.i.: Partner leads A and dummy has Qxx(x): Is OS agreement still valid and partner has to lie about OS color if he wants/does not want a switch. Or did you specifically agree that OS is not valid and a small card simply encourages in the suit itself?

MP's [hv=pc=n&s=sq75haj85djt73ckj&n=sajxxhkqxdcat9xxx&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c(2+C)1dd(4+cH%3B%20transfer)3d(preemptive%2C%20can%20be%20very%20weak)dppp]233|200[/hv] Your DBL was transfer to ♥. Partners DBL is take-out and extra's. At this level we don't play support DBL, but DBL is often with 3c♥. I passed, afraid to loose 4 ticks D and another trick. Apparently (seeing the answers) pass is not the correct decision at MPs and this vulnerability. 3DX did go -2. It looks like 3NT and 6♣ have similar chances (?). How would you play 3NT after a ♦ lead and you are allowed to make the 1st trick. We were actually EW and these are we the scores for NS. (we scored 70% with 3DX-2) Score NZ ptnNZ %NZ -150 1 11 55.00% -800 2 0 0.00% -690 3 2 10.00% -50 4 18 90.00% -100 5 16 80.00% 400 6 20 100.00% -630 7 4 20.00% -300 8 6 30.00% -150 9 11 55.00% -140 10 14 70.00% -200 11 8 40.00%

We have agreed: OBAR “Opponents bid and raise – balance in direct seat” If opponents bid (1x) – (2x), bid in direct seat as you would in balancing seat. What would you consider the minimum for this bid when having agreed to play OBAR?: (1H)-P-(2H)-? 2S: ??xxx-xx-?xx-xxx 2S: ??xxxx-x-?xx-xxx 3D: ?xx-xx-??xxx-xxx 3D: ?xx-x-??xxxx-xxx Vulnerable or Non-Vulnerable / MPs and IMPs

Thank you :)You could have added: 1♣-1♥ 1♠-? 1NT for me. (MPs or IMPs?)

15433

I obviously did mean DBL iso RDBL (and all other 1-level bids are transfer, with 1♠ transfer to 1NT)

After 1♣-(P)-? => We play T-Walsh. Playing T-Walsh it is easy to play a similar system after: 1x-(1D/H)-? (with DBL is transfer to 1 over 1). or after: 1C/D/H-(DBL)- (with RDBL is transfer to 1 over 1). => I would recommend these transfers when playing T-walsh.

I don't understand this: Partner made a TO X.

Actual N-S hands and bidding: MP's [hv=pc=n&s=sakt85hadt986cjt5&n=sj97h2dkqj54ckq42&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1d(4+)p1h(4+Spades)3h(Pass%20first%2C%20changed%20after%20late%20alert)pp3nppp]233|200[/hv] North Opened 1♦, showing 4+♦. South did bid 1♥, showing 4+♠ (1♥ and 1♠ bid are reversed by agreement). Because there has some talk between N and S about the previous hand, North alerted after West already passed. After the alert of North, West changed his pass to 3♥. What is your bid (+is it important for you that West first passed?) Note: We play support DBL until 2 Major. 3NT did go -4. I did bid 3NT because I hoped partner had some ♥-stop (RHO not raising ♥s and I was a bit confused by LHO passing initially - I didn't realize that this was UI for me). I didn't want to DBL to avoid wrong MP contract if partner was 2=3=4=4 with Qxx in ♥. I agree now that DBL is best. ...What should North bid if South DBLs? I a simple 3♠ enough?

Thank you for the answer. Actual NS hands and bidding: MPs All Vulnerable [hv=pc=n&s=sqjt2h85dj6ct8642&n=sa873h2da52cak973&d=w&v=2&b=11&a=1d(4+)2c(4cS%20and%20longer%20C)2h(non-forcing)3c4h5cppp]233|200[/hv] Bidding: - 1♦ was a 4c+♦ - 2♣ bid showed a 4c♠ and 5+c♣. Strength similar to a one-level overcall and depending on distribution, 7 to 17 HCP. - 2♥ was non-forcing - 3♣ preemptive (no very clear agreements on this, but I assume that 2NT is still a good ♣-raise and 3♦ would be a good ♠-raise. South did bid 3♣, planning to show his spade support the next round. North did bid 5♣, assuming that he would make only 3 tricks in defense. Comments welcome.

MP's [hv=pc=n&s=sq75haj85djt73ckj&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c(2+C)1dd(4+cH%3B%20transfer)3d(preemptive%2C%20can%20be%20very%20weak)dp]133|200[/hv] Your DBL was transfer to ♥. Partners DBL is take-out and extra's. At this level we don't play support DBL, but DBL is often with 3c♥. Your call?

BTW: I didn't realize that I had UI...I rather thought that RHO had UI. Thanks for that info already.

MPs All Vulnerable [hv=pc=n&s=sqjt2h85dj6ct8642&d=w&v=2&b=11&a=1d(4+)2c(4cS%20and%20longer%20C)2h(non-forcing)]133|200[/hv] Your partners 2♣ bid showed a 4c♠ and 5+c♣. Strength similar to a one-level overcall and depending on distribution, 7 to 17 HCP. Opps: 1♦ was a 4c+♦ ; and 2♥ was non-forcing. 2NT and 3♦ are good raises of ♣ and ♠. Direct raises are preemptive. You bid?

MP's [hv=pc=n&s=sakt85hadt986cjt5&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1d(4+)p1h(4+Spades)3h(Pass%20first%2C%20changed%20after%20late%20alert)pp]133|200[/hv] North Opened 1♦, showing 4+♦. South did bid 1♥, showing 4+♠ (1♥ and 1♠ bid are reversed by agreement). Because there has some talk between N and S about the previous hand, North alerted after West already passed. After the alert of North, West changed his pass to 3♥. What is your bid (+is it important for you that West first passed?) Note: We play support DBL until 2 Major.

I was East and I agree that I'm too weak for my DBL and I should have 4-4 majors. Additional questions: - Would 3♥ (iso DBL) by East show about the same strength than DBL? - Can West bid 4♦ iso 4♠ or is 4♠ clearly better?

I didn't think of this before (too much viewing the rest of the auction),...but we play that 1♠ shows 4c♠ with longer ♦s. West's hand is very good for it, but not too strong. I have to check with my partner why he didn't bid that. Maybe he found DBL more flexible and/or his hand too good (with the 3c♥).

[hv=pc=n&s=skj93hk92d6cak865&w=sat86hj85dakq83c4&n=s42hqt6d954cqj973&e=sq75ha743djt72ct2&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=pp1c(2+)d3c(inverted%2C%206-9)d4c4sppp]399|300|IMPs[/hv] 4♠ was too high. Both DBLs were take-out (We don't play natural 1NT overcal, so West's DBL could have been with a 1NT hand). Both East and West are minimal for their last non-pass, but what bid is/are (most) wrong?

1S is forcing for us. 2S also mini splinter.