steve2005

still would pick 1N over double as the explanation for double by a passed hand was 12-16 pts, last time I checked I open those hands lol At least 1N shows 5-5 in the minors so you'll end up in the right suit

I cant believe some people are blaming south. his 2♦ promised 1 King, he has a whole one extra King above minimum. Certainly bidding 3S as encouraging constitutes showing the second King. Nobody has mention what the minimum the 2♣ bidder can have, sounds pretty high but it certainly possible that if south would be getting too high bidding over 4♠ If North can't find a cuebid with 4 aces and such a strong hand opposite a partner who is encouraging him, he should take up euchre where he can not pick up a Bower lol

you have two userids. When you sign in with ipad and it asks for useid type in your other userid and password. note it is possible u didn't give acbl number to both userids

what's the Vul? I think both NV from diagram. is it MPs or IMPs?

south bids 3♠ not 3N at last turn with 3♠, so 4♠ now should be like Qx what's south's hand?

which by the way GIB's physical CC doesn't list as playing systems on over 1N after a 2♣ overcall (which it does) just has after double

sounds like a jerk!

Could use Transfer Lebensohl 3♣ (INV or GF in ♦) -3♦-3N showing GF with ♦ and a stopper now doubler can pick his game

4♥ makes no sense in a Precision context. if its show 1-suited ♥ bids 2♥ previous round. With a ♥ 2-suiter and a minor still 2♥. Even with a splinter I would probably bid 2♠ to rightside the contract and get to use the asking bids that we actually have discussed rather than an undiscussed 4♥ So I have to ask the question no one wants to ask. How familiar is he with the system and could he have forgotten? but I would bid 4♠

from GIB CC Notes (which aren't necessarily up to date) 2NT Minor Suit Transfer (Promises 6+ clubs. Opener must bid 3♣) If responder's next bid is 3 of a new suit, he is promising a singleton or void in that suit, but not necessarily slam interest Responder's 3NT rebid is a mild slam try (usually balanced). Responder's 4NT rebid is RKCBend GIB Notes now if you wanted to use 2N-3♣-3N for that purpose go ahead but this is a very rare hand seems a waste of a bid, when you can use 3♦ to show stiff ♣ or ♦

I had it come up in the 1990's while I was playing it lol, none since

yes, I just love it when partner signs off then makes a slam try after I haven't shown anything extra!

it has bad doubletons because it has a completely solid 7 card suit. Hand is worth 7.5 QT as a minimum. This hand worth a jump to 3♠! The doubleton honors will likely play well opposite a GF 2/1 and the KT♦ arguably could be valued as AJ, they are like gold as partner probably has a real ♦ suit Point! Smoints! That said isn't a good slam, but is worth investigating below 4♠. The slam you want is 6N played by South if they had less spades and more diamonds or has J♦

Pass for sure, you've already shown a good hand. If partner was interested in slam he wouldn't just bid 3N. In your actual auction East bid 3♠ not 3N which is even weaker than 3N, why aren't you asking about auction after 3♠? Was your 3♣ fourth suit forcing and if so was it GF or F1? If was FSF completely changes the bidding. Agree with ahydra. Would like to see East hand to see if is lucky make or if east has underbid their hand.

That depends on your methods but a 3♥/3♠ directly over 1N is often used with a singleton in bid suit 5-4 in minors and GF. Some people reverse it and bid their 3-card major instead. If your not using this, would use minor suit Stayman and if your not using MSS then it would go thru Stayman I think. There is no standard system over 1N, people use their own gadgets.

now opps bid 4♣, can you now bid 4♥ without partner getting too excited?!

I don't think this has been covered but what did the double of 1♣ mean? if it was Mathe it would be for the majors I suppose some could double for ♣ or just general values Crash would be 2 suits of same color and does the meaning make difference to your methods?

did he pick up the Q♥? sound like you played for 2-2 and it worked. cause if he did then he can afford safest line of play to have at most one loser in ♦ which is to play A♦ then lead up to the Q

Just to be Devil's advocate, there is a lot to be said for playing 1♠ forcing and 1N as a double negative. from book Precision'sOne Club Complete, K Wei & J. Radin example responder hand ♠2 ♥5432 ♦J432 ♣Q432 here 6♣/6♦ playable and will pass 1♠ if not forcing

Meckwell undoubtably play in Mid-chart events!

If by artificial it means it could have 0-2 ♦ I don't see how it can be GCC legal. and if it could have a 4 card major it easily could have only 2♦. does this mean you can use 1♥-2♥ as a limit raise with 2♥? why you want to do this I don't know!? If it were GF you can do whatever you want

takeout- what a joke. You don't have enough to do a takeout double of 2♠. suddenly you find better pts or distribution and you can make partner bid at the 5-level? ITS 100% PENALTY don't care what the explanation says.

http://www.bridgewithdan.com/systems/ scroll down to Magic System there is a big pdf for it 42 pages

While nice Larry and not too complicated. Is it supposed to be ACBL GCC compatible? cause there are three bids in the responses to 1♦ which I don't think are. responding 1♥ on 3 cards and 2♦ as a limit+ artificial raise. needs to have 3♦ even 2♣ response there might be a problem, in GCC says a jump response could be use to show 5♣4♦ but it has to be know which is 5+ and which is 4+

what they need is the cone of silence (from Get Smart) around everyone lol