Poky

MP. All vul. 1♠ - Dbl - Pa - 2♥ 3♣ - 3♥ - 3♠ - ??? ♠xx ♥1098xx ♦A10xx ♣xx What you bid? What you bid playing IMPs instead of MPs? What you bid if RHO bids 4♣ instead of 3♠ (on MPs)?

Clear-cut 3♦ Partner has 1543/1453 shape.

IMP. All vul. 1♥ - Dbl - ? ♠AKJ8x ♥- ♦8xxx ♣8xxx

What holds the opener? 1♣ - 1♠ 2♣ - 2NT 3♥

What holds the opener? 1♣ - 1♥ 1♠ - 1NT 3♦

1) ♦2 2) ♦9

This isn't completely true. You can still play 2/1 and adopt a very powerful Gazzilli structure to modify opener rebids. Playing Gazzlli the way I do the changes in rebids after opening 1M are: 2♣= multi, natural 11-15 or some unspecific 16+ hands (usually 5431/6431) (with 2♦ asking for clarification) 2NT= GF one-suiter, usually 18+ jump shifts= GF two-suiters, minimum 5-5 and 18+ This way you can even improve your 1NT opening by never opening it with 5M. Holding 5M332 you bid: 1) With 15-16= 1M->2♣->2NT 2) With 17-19= 1M->2♣->3NT 3) With 20-22= 2NT+puppet Also you can use the 1♥-1NT-2♠ sequence to show a weak 6♥5♠ hand cause the natural reverse could go through Gazzilli: 1♥->2♣->2♠. A lot of improvements and almost nothing to lose (except 1M-1A-2m beeing NF).

You usually double 1m with 3-2 in majors and 14 count?

1♣ - Dbl - pa - 2♠* pa - 2NT * Natural, (8)9-11 with spades Describe a hand for bidding Dbl and 2NT with it

Agree 100%. 2♠ will I bid with a hand like: ♠ATxx ♥ATxxx ♦x ♣Kxx or similar and stronger.

I would bid an easy 2♠. Since my double in this position is negative, i will use it having 4♠ in a strong hand.

(1♣) - 1♠ - (pass) - pass (Dbl) - 2NT What means 2NT in your partnership?

a ) Since my p's double would be negative my double is also negative. Say, some nice 3253 or 3244 hand. At least this is the way I play it. b ) If my p redoubles first probably he is showing some maximum misfitting hand wishing to penalize. Say, some good 2443 (or 1453 if possible), so I would interpred his Dbl as penalty (if we don't play inverted doubles). But I think this isn't a good treatment cause p can be very weak and spades are obviously behind. Example hand for b ): ♠xx ♥AQ10x ♦AKxx ♣JTx

I play it this way and is pretty good. After 1♣-1♦: 1♥= - 3♥, 12-14 bal - 3♥ with clubs, 11-18 - 4♥ with clubs, 7 LT (it comes very rarely that opponents pass when holding this kind of hand - so this isn't a bad part of system as it seems) 2♥= - 4♥ 12-14 bal 3♥= - 4♥ with clubs, 6 LT Splinters= - stronger hands with clubs

You aren't a pased hand so is supposed that you play natural, it means: Dbl= negative 3♥= forcing with hearts 3♠= simple raise, constructive 3NT= to play 4♣= forcing with clubs 4♦= good spade raise 4♥= to play, offensive hand (or FSJ if you like to play this way) 4♠= to play, offensive hand Why should 4♣ by a unlimited hand be FNJ? Never heard of anybody that plays this way. In this scheme is 3♥ also a FNJ to 3♠ maybe? I presume I should dbl if I have GF with 6+♣ and no fit? Or not?... Makes no sense to me...

All love. IMP. ♠10xx ♥KQ ♦QJ ♣KQJ10xx 1♠ - 3♦ - ???

All love. pa - pa - 2♠ - pa pa - ??? ♠x ♥109x ♦KJ109x ♣KQJx

So, in your system it will go... 1♥-1♠ 1NT-pass ...and everything will be OK when the opener has the (5332) variations. But what about? 1552... 4243 2551... 4243 Dosn't seem to me that playing 1NT is a superior partscore when we have 5-4 diamond fit available.

4513 vs. 3253 1♥-1♠ 1NT-pass 1♥-1♠ 2♦- pass/2♥/2♠ I think the 1st approach is much more flexible.

This is one of the best convention I ever played and it works very well with Gazzilli. Duboin-Bocchi are playing it generall this way: 1♥-1♠ 1NT= 4♠ or 3523 (2♣=asking) 2♣= Gazzlli (5♥4♣ 11-15 or some strong hands, 2♦= asking) 2♦= 5♥4♦ or 3532/2532 2♥= 6♥ Other= as you wish... 1♥-1NT 2♣= Gazzilli (could be 16+ with 3♠/4♠) 2♦= 5♥3+♦ 2♥= 6♥ 2♠= 3+♠, min 3♠= 3+♠. inv Other= as you wish... Playing this way you can: a) Play 1♠-1NT as natural :rolleyes: Play 1NT when the bidding goes 1♥-1♠-1NT c) Play always in 5-3♠ fit where the bidding in SAYC goes 1♥-1♠-1NT-pass d) Hide the right lead to opponents when bidding goes 1♥-1♠ 2♣-2♦ ... 3NT Cause opponents don't know if you have 4♠ or not.

I play this way and woks fine: 1♦ - 4+♥ 1♥ - 4+♠ 1♠ - 2+♣, 4-11, some kind of transfer to NT 1NT - GF relay (can hold 4M) 2♣ - 5+♦ (5♦5M inv or 6♦short♣) 2♦ - reverse Flannery, 5♠4♥ 4-8 2♥ - 6+♥ inv 2♠ - 6+♠ inv 2NT - 6+♣, transfer preempt 3♣ - 6+♣ inv 3♦ - 6+♦ inv

I had... ♠J98xxx ♥Kx ♦x ♣Qxxx Should I have: a ) Opened a weak-2? b ) Pass 2♥ in balancing seat? c ) Balance with Dbl? My p bid 4♠ directly (after long hestitation) and I was doubled for -1 (careful play needed not to go -2 when ♠Q holds the trick). It was a bottom score. Lefty had 0454, almost a 2♥ opener, he he. P.S. For Stefan. Nope, 4♠ was much better game than 3NT in this case. :D

Maybe 'cause he didn't have it! :P

Hi! 2NT = natural, invitational to 3NT 3m = probably to play (not agreed) 3♥ = spade raise, better than 3♠ 3♠ = spade raise, invitational in this sequence ("bid game with max") 3NT = natural, to play

MP. All love. ♠AQx ♥AQxxx ♦KQx ♣xx pass* - 2♥** - pass - pass 2♠ - pass - ??? * You are playing standard weak-2, sometimes with 5 cards (if good 5431 hand) ** Hearts+minor, weak