Hanoi5

Baron over 2NT works fine here I think.

Why not find about the heart fit? Or is my partner promising a 5-5?

I think it depends largely on your agreements. Can your partner have a 4-card spade suit?

I voted other for I would lead the ♥A.

If I don't play 1NT as showing the unbid suits with a more distributional, I'd bid it. Double is my next option. Pass I don't like but it comes third.

West should have doubled.

Holding: ♠QJxxx ♥Jx ♦x ♣AKxxx All Vulnerable, dealer opens 2♥ (weak), you're next...

I recently came across the BQ program, what's your opinion about it?

You're cheating! But who hasn't played with someone over their shoulders anyway, so no offense intended.

I usually find these problems amusing for the finesse gives you 50% chance of making the hand while the squeeze is probably less. In this case you can also try for both things (squeeze and finesse) but then this position cannot be achieved: ♠10 ♥x ♦x ♣Q ♠ ♥AK9 ♦ ♣x Instead achieving this one: ♠10 ♥ ♦x ♣x ♠ ♥9 ♦ ♣AJ And they are not always compatible. Truth is that RHO held: ♠QJ9x ♥J8xxxx ♦x ♣xx So bid_em_up is right here.

I also thought of 3♠ (I voted 4♣) but my hand is not very strong (especially if we have no fit), so my question is, how should partner take 3♠ and what if he repeats diamonds as someone already said?

Because I wasn't taught that. Because 1NT is rarely opened on a 5-card Major. Because it's not 'normal'. Because I can always bid 3 of a Major after stayman to show 5 cards. Because when I open 1NT on a 5-card-Major the hand is better suited for NT play.

Forgot passing was the perfect way to find out if pd has Ace or void in hearts. I'll play 6 anyway, so I don't regret it that much (unless we go down).

You hold: ♠KQ8xxx ♥x ♦Kx ♣KJxx With No one Vul. it goes: Pass 1♥ Pass 1♠ Pass 3♣ Pass ??? You play 2/1 and nothing special in this sequence, what's your rebid? what do you plan on doing? It's an imp's event, does that affect your decision?.

[hv=d=e&v=b&n=stxxhxdakqjxxxcqx&s=sak8hak9dtxxcajtx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] We were playing against these two ladies and on the first board my partner botched a hand and so I said to myself, 'let's take it back'. I opened second hand with South 19-count with a 'tactic' 2NT and my pd and me eventually got to 7NT. I had a club lead which meant 13 easy tricks (13 not 14, if you catch my meaning) but on a diamond lead (which someone else got), how would you play?

I play for the stiff ♥K, and after winning the ♦K I therefore play the ♥A and upon seeing the King fall from LHO I finesse in spades if LHO has a small singleton.

♥J.

Everything looks bad, or good. ♦2.

It may sound amazing but I hadn't thought of this. :P However, what if bidding 3♦ makes partner think I don't have 4 hearts? The 3♣ double is a negative double which 'tends' to show 4 hearts, while I thought 3♦ denied it. Of course this shouldn't be so unless you have specifically this agreement, so I guess I should have bid 3♦. Only 9 tricks were available though.

I think rebidding 3♦ makes it difficult to reach 4♥. I think doubling and not getting the heart response would have gotten us to diamonds eventually, wouldn't it? Or is it that this hand HAS to be played in diamonds? It is MP after all.

You hold ♠x ♥Qxxx ♦AKQxxxx ♣x Bidding goes: Pass 1♦ 2♣ 2♠ 3♣ X Pass 3♥ Pass ??? Well, probably it's not a rebid, a re-rebid maybe?

Pass now.

This could be tricky. What if partner opened on x Kxxxx AQxxxx x? I'd also cue-bid, 4♠ or 5♣, not sure, though I tend to favore the first one. I have 6♦ in mind, though 6♥ might fare better. The real question is qhether partner has the aforementioned hand (or a similar one) or not.

If my partner hadn't passed at his first turn I'd continue.

I'd bid 4NT, find out about the queen and depending on the king(s) my pd has I'll bid 6 or 7.