adhoc3

Winstonm re-contructed the hand very precisely. The pard's hand was alike: ATx AKJ Ax K98xx He could have taken 3C as Slam interests, Wolff was out of consideration for one-shot partnership. Maybe he was thinking: "what does this guy mean here? Slam interest or just a game try? ....... 4NT would be a neutral thing, he can pass or correct." So it's becomes reasonable why he didnt start cuebid. Pass 4NT would be the best result. But I did not capture the thought of partner at that time. Observing form my side, my hand strongly preferred trump contract. It would be bad bridge playing 3NT down but 5C/D stone safe (yes, could be more stupid playing hopeless 5 level contract when there's 9 fast tricks:). I knew pd was thinking something strange but I could be sure. I simply could not pass a doubtful bid made by new partner. If my singleton valued, 6C would not be too bad: pd's hand could be AK Axxx AQ KT98x. or AKQ Axxx Kx Kxxxx. If H singleton was wastage, as actually it is, 5C could be in risk. So I took the bet and bid 6C. The contract was of coz hopeless while the other room playing 3NT+2, 13 imps gone. Their bidding was: 1NT(alerted 16-18)--2C 3NT!? I don't think they bid better than us. BTW, There was no blame-defence happened on my table. TYP

With a pickup pd, 2/1 agreed

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=s9xxhxdqjxxxxcxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♠--4♥--??[/hv]

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sj9xxh4dt9xxcaqxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♣--1♠ 2NT---3♣ 4NT---??? [/hv]

9 9876 xx KQJxxx Sry

9 9876 xx KQJxxx Your PD opened 1S, 1NT forcing and PD rebid 2H. Opps keep silent. How do you think the chance of a game? If you make an invitation, it is almost impossible to have PD understood what you want.

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=saqjxhaxxd432cqxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♦---p---1♠---2♣ 2♦---p---3♣---p 3♦---p---3♥---p 3♠---p---??? After uncomfortable bidding, pick a game please, what's your choice?[/hv] North's hand hidden below.

An suggested process: pass---1♥ 2♣*A---2♦ *Reverse Drury 3♦----4♣ 4♦----4NT 5♠A----5NT 6♦----7♥ Since south passed, so it's ok bidding 6D showing extra length.

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=saxhktxxxdkqxcakx&s=sxxxhaqjda98xxcxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP pass--1♥ 2♣A--3♣ 3♦----3♠ 4♥----4NT 5♠A--5NT 6♥----pass 7♥ took chance of 60%+, would you bid 7? and how? BTW, do you agree with south's initial pass? [/hv]

Continuing last thread: http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=11449 for easy reading. 1NT---dbl---pass--- As many pointed out, a fight in dark(or mud) started. It just like a game that everyone holds a flyswatter, watching each other, who start to run away is a fly. When has nothing worth bidding, it’s just fine sitting there holding flyswatter. But when opps equiped with some kind of safe-landing device, what would you do with the following hands: 1NT--------dbl--------pass[1]------pass[2] [1]Forcing to redoule, kind of threat A1) KQxxx Kxxxx xx x_________B1) QJxxx Kxxxx xx x A2) KQxx Axxx x xxxx_________B2) KQxx xxxx x xxxx A3) KJTxx x Axxx xxx__________B3) JTxxx x Axxx xxx A4) xxx KQTxx Axxx x_________B4) xxx QJTxx Kxxx x A5) x xx KQxxx KJxxx_________B5) x xx Kxxxx Qxxxx Group A are nice hands, but not enough FG. Group B are weaker hands, keen on part score. If you pass[2], the bidding probably will goes: 1NT--------dbl--------pass[1]------pass[2] XX*(relay)--pass[3]---2D*---------pass[4] *Edit: as Robert said. 2H(4+)----????[5]----pass---------????[6] [1]Forcing *(say D+higher, 44) [2] Bid something here will be runaway, or ‘to play’. Partner could be not strong enough to bid here[3], or dbl again. [4] When you want to cut in here, a lot of spaces have been consumed. Would be definitely too late to cut in here[6]. When opps bid higher suit after [3], will you still have T/O dbl available?

pass-1S 1NT--2D 2S---3C? Is this an auto bid?

Thus 1N is not forcing. Partner bids with an unbalanced hand, and passes with a weak NT, this is how people bid in SAYC. The idea of calling it "semi-forcing" because with 14 and 5332 opener will bid whereas in SAYC opener would pass seems silly, thats the only difference. I think that bidding doesn't work if we make "fourteen" it's own special category. A weak NT is a weak NT. If I have a 14 I will just pass 1N or upgrade the hand to a 1N opener initially. Bidding with a 5332 14 just in case partner happens to have a balanced 11 so that we can get to a slim game that may or may not make does not make sense to me, sometimes sh!t happens. I prefer to keep the integrity of the 2m bids. Even if I concede that it's "standard" to bid with a 5332 14 count that could not upgrade to a 1N opener, it is such an infrequent occurence when the bid is 2D that I'm willing to ignore it. Yes, a passed hand can't make 100% 'forcing NT bid', as part of his right of making judgement has been deprived by his initial pass. All the rebid form the opener is game oriental, in case PD could have 11 hcps (for which 14 hcp make sense as a threshold). What Lawrence suggested are: 1) opener is to pass with 5332, 4333, 4432 and 14- hcp ('forced':P to pass by agreement); 2) opener is forced to bid with unbalance hand (any hcps) or 15+ hcp (any shape); 3) responder shall bid his forcing NT just like he never passed; 4) responder pass/raise opener's rebid, if it happen to be his 5 cards minor when weak/strong. So for the case posted, using Lawrence's style, 2D could be 3 cards suit in a 14+ hand, back to S might be a must. If the purpose of the post is to test the common style of responce to specific hand, 2S/2D seems to be equal. There're some other considerations out of discussion: what's the range of 4th seat 1NT? is there 4th seat intermmediate 2x opening? is it too cheap to buy the contract? ...etc. I'll bid 2S anyway. Regards, Jack

In Mike Lawrence's book, Bidding Guidance After 2 Passes (I am not sure if it is the exact name in English), he pointed out that 1NT forcing off for a passed hand was wrong --- when 2/1 by a passed hand would not be GF. Given with Drury, forcing NT still work fine for a passed hand. A few expamples were given in this book: 1) 865 J4 Q1086 KJ97 Pass 1H 1NT 2C 2H 2) Q7 542 A10875 Q43 (this hand maybe wrong printed) Pass 1S 1NT 2D 2S(!) 3) Q7 542 AQ1097 Q43 Pass 1S 1NT 2D 3D* encouraging 4) J7 J42 J8642 QJ3 Pass 1S 1NT 2D Pass 5)AKJ 43 QJ96 9752 Pass 1H 1NT 2C 2NT However, he noted, the opener should pass the forcing NT with balanced hand and less 14 hcps. The posted hand is quite similar with 1). So back to S is Lawrence style.

This should be the winning play. A 'decent partner' won't open 3c with 5 cards major, so it's impossible that C10 requested D ruff.

2D seems too low. Opps could have a big fit in Heart.

There're too many styles of Precision, better you have a stable partner to practise and play with. In BBO, you can sit and play SAYC without saying a word, but you will have to post CC if want to play Precision. :P

Is it really similar situation? 1) 2x--pass--pass*, the opener has 6-8 hcps, 32-34 hcp not seen 1NT--pass--2x*, the opener has 12-15 hcps, 25-28 hcp not seen 2) 2x--pass--pass*, the opener has 6 cards in his suit, including honors 1NT--pass--2x*, the opener could have nothing but 5 cards The responder will either bid 2x(or via trans) with Txxxx xxx x xxxx, or KQJxx Qxx xxx xx opposites pd's 1NT opening. Don't you think there's higher risk to make a balance?

The loss of not dbl with 13+ also includes many part scores. 1NT---pass---2x*---?? or 1NT---pass---2x*---pass-||-pass---pass---?? *to play With 12-13 hcp and no sound suit, it's hard to judge whether balance or not.

1NT -- dbl -- pass* -- ??pass Assume the dbl showing open value. Range of 1NT is 12-15, if it matters. Edit: as MickyB pointed out, 'open value' shall be real, not a soso 11+ hcp hand. But isn't 15+ seems too much? I play 13+, in case the opps won't easily steal. BTW, the pass* here usually forcing to redbl (safe landing), but for this post, let's say it's non-forcing.

I pass. If pd balance with suit, I'll bid 3nt; if he dbl, I'll be happy to play 1Sx.

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=saj972hkq9dt832c3]133|100|Scoring: IMP pass----1NT--pass--2♠ Pass#--3♣--3♦--pass ??? 1NT 15-17, 2♠ trans to ♣ Your PD is a real expert. DONT against 1NT opening is agreed. [/hv] What do you bid now? If you pass, LHO will bid 4♣. Full hand hidden below.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=satxxxh9daqxxcjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1NT--2♣*--2♠--? *DONT -- Club and higher suit[/hv] Your PD is a real expert. Now, what do you bid? What do you expect? Full hand hidden below.

When I introduced Bridge to my college classmetes 20 years ago, it took me 2~3 hours showing them how the game played. After known every bid has a definition, they were so much inspired that some of them start to assemble their own bidding system right away. The system they created was some kind of strong-pass -- I swear none of them ever know what was 'bridge' before I told them! Quite simple thinking: you tell me to bid something when have more than 13 hcp, OK, I'll do it my way, I bid something when I dont have ...... They practised by themselves for a few days and went to college bridge team match with their own team (I played for another team). They won the 1st and 2 nd round by 25-0!!! Then TD found they did not alert their bids and did not told their opps anything about their system before the game started (Why should I told you my secrect weapon??) LOL. I dont know why their 1st round opps had not called TD immediately, maybe all were novices, dizzing on their first match. My classmates were forced to bid normally but they refused (how possible? they had not learn that yet!), quit the match with honor. Some of them were frustrated and didnot play bridge anymore. But we all remember how happy we were when seeing they were leading the scoreboard. :rolleyes:

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=s3h9dakjt72ckj632&w=sjt98hakjt73dct54&e=s6542h62d9864cq87&s=sakq7hq854dq53ca9]399|300|Scoring: IMP West opened 1♥. North covered by 2♦. How to bid slam? [/hv] I was sitting south playing with random partner. What happened on my table was a tragedy. 1♥--2♦----P---2♥ P----3♣---P----3♠ P----3NT--P----4♦ P----P!----P//

Also the cheapest bidding. 3♥ stated a self-sufficient suits, only side control could be helpful. Not necessary to jump with fragile suit after 2/1.