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[hv=d=e&s=saxxhqxxxdaqxcqxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] (2S)-P-(p)-DBL (p)-? We agreed to play Lebensohl - 2NT weak relay - bu don't have agreements about bidding this hand. What is best ageement here?

With only ♦ we bid 3♦ intermediate. (We think that we have more often 2 suits to bid then 1 and therefor we play lot of 2 suited overcalls)

Thank you, interesting; but I verified with suitplay and it is not completely true (..as far as I understand this). AKQ987 vs 32 Probability of RHO holding JTx : 10.2% JT: 3.4% If RHO plays the J under your A then : Probability of RHO was holding initially: JTx : 5.1% (assuming RHO often falsecards, half of 10.2%) JT: 3.4% => So you should still play from top....In practice you probably should finesse here against most players. which part of " If these are the only two possibilities then you should finesse " is so difficult to understand?! in your "verification," and I use the term very loosely, you introduced a third case (JTx), completely ignored the case of the stiff honor, and forgot to adjust your percentages for J only being played roughly half the time from JT. You also ignored the case of JTxx where RHO might be trying to get you to waste an entry to hand to finesse. I don't know what I was telling here. Doesn't seem to make sense. Sorry for that!

- What is weak/strong...I thought this hand is intermediate, so I bid 2♥ - I play that 2♦ shows 5+♦ and 4♥...Not sure if I would bid 2♦ (lying 1 ♥) or 2♥.

umm, where is the trump queen? Ok, did not make a lot of sense if bridge is played with a Q in every suit :rolleyes:

Thank you, interesting; but I verified with suitplay and it is not completely true (..as far as I understand this). AKQ987 vs 32 Probability of RHO holding JTx : 10.2% JT: 3.4% If RHO plays the J under your A then : Probability of RHO was holding initially: JTx : 5.1% (assuming RHO often falsecards, half of 10.2%) JT: 3.4% => So you should still play from top....In practice you probably should finesse here against most players.

Thanks for the answers so far! really appreciated! [hv=n=saxx&w=sx&e=sjtx&s=sk98xxx]399|300|[/hv] When the ♥K is played, RHO does not know what declarer has. The suit could be distributed as above. Then flasecarding could give away a trick. ...So you can assume that RHO will only falsecarding occasionaly and therefor you best play him for ♥J single? ...If you plan to finesse in ♥ is it better to eliminate ♦ and ♣ first (RHO already showed ♣K, ♥J and ♦A, ♠K would give him 11HCP and maybe he would have found a bid over 2♥ then. Does you 'feel' that probabilityof RHO having ♠K compensate ruff risk?)

I corrected the post. RHO played the ♥J

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sqxxxhaxxdqxxcxxx&s=saxhkq98xdkjxcaqt]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1H-2H 4H (2H=3-card and 7+)[/hv] Lead is small ♦ for ♦A of East. Small ♣ returned for ♣T and ♣J and West plays another ♣ for ♣K and your A. You now play ♥K and East plays ♥J. You know that Opps are not good enough to play ♥J from ♥JTx (probability is 5%). RHO has either ♥J or ♥JT. What is best play now? 1) Is restircted choice enough reason for ♥ finesse? 2) Does elimination possiblity increases the chanches enough for the finesse?

..no idea what the best assumption is. 100% GF (safest assumption) No (safest assumption) Not sure what is most close to standard? ..Some more: What is usually in 2/1: 1S-2C-? 3H: 3S: 3NT: 4S:

I suppose this is the hand I really don't understand the difference between MP's (2C) and IMP's (Pass). I also don't understand: If you pass then you hope that parnter DBLs and you can pass that? So I don't see how it can be a problem.

I mean comparison of BBO 2/1 with BBO SAYC (BBO=what most people on BBO will think it is). For 2/1: anything that is considered pretty standard (I know that no real standard exists). I tried to give a list of what it is in my original post.

What are the main differences between 2/1 and standard american: ...If I'm used to SAYC and want to pretent on BBO that I know 2/1, then at least I should know... - 2 over 1 bid is GF (off by passed hand and in competition) - 1M-1NT is forcing (off by passed hand and in competition) - Walsh is almost standard in 2/1 - weak and limit 3 card tais go via 1NT - J2NT part of 2/1? - DBLs, penalty after 2/1?

Yes, but I think you should compare: ♥Q singleton and ♠'s not 4-3 versus ♥void ...I would think it is better not to play the ♥A then? Edit: and yes..the edit ;)

Agree Am I allowed to rule that NS get the best likely result? If you give a weighted score then the probability that NS get less then they would get without the Mis-information if 50%. And the probability that EW get more then they would get without the Mis-information if 50%. If prefer to be at the save side for the non-offending pair and always give the most favourable iso weighted score. In this case I would rule 6♥= for NS (maybe I should give 6♥+1). (If 6♥ can not be made then I rule 4♥+?)

Let me add a question: If partner passes over 4S iso DBL, is it forcing? - If pass would have been forcing then I pass now. - If pass would not have been forcing then I think that I also pass, but much less confident. (some days I will bid 4NT).

Agree, although I guess you want to give EW the procedural penalty. If you dont ask for an explanantion you have to live with the result With kind regards Marlowe PS: I am pretty sure, that North intended to bid 4H over 3NT, why did he not do this? - 3NT was bid after E explained partner's 3♦ as preempt in hearts. Therefor Souths 3NT makes sense and North Pass also. I would correct to the best result for NS that seems likely with correct explanation and same result for EW (without additional penalty). - Who says that the CC is not correctly filled. Maybe EW don't play transfer preempts when overcalling and only the explanation was wrong.

[hv=d=n&v=b&n=sxxxhkt9xxdakxxcx&s=sat8xxxhjxxdxckjx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] P-(1C)-1S-(P) 2C-(P)-3S-(P) 4S-All Pass What do you think of this bidding? If South only bids 2S iso 3S, should North then re-invite with 3S and should S accept? (I tried to reconstruct the hands like it happened at the table, but I can't imagine that I didn't bid a weak 2S with the S hand. So the hands were probably not exactly as given. I know I had 8/9 HCP and 12 distribution pts. So assume you play strong jump overcalls and you started with 1S)

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sakt95hak92d92ckt&s=s74ht75dak74c8542]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] West leads a 4th best ♦5 for East's ♦T. You take this with the ♦K. ..what is best play now? - If you have enough entries then double finesse in ♠ is best. Do you still start with a finesse now or is it better to play ♠ from top? - If you finesse ♠ then it looses to the J and East returns the ♦J. If you hold up then East continues ♦. ....If you now finesse ♠ again then you only have 8 tricks and a 9th would have to come from and end-play. It is therefor better to use your last entry to play a ♣ to the K?

...To bid anything else then 2♠ you will need a good opening?

How do you play following DBL's: 1♣-(4♠)-DBL 1♣-(4♠)-P-(P)-DBL takeout, penalty or something in between? [hv=d=n&s=sjhxxdatxxxxxcqxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] What do you bid with this hand after 1♣-(4♠)-P-(P)- DBL-(P)-??

I don't play 2/1. But we play 2♦ forcing, that 3♦ is splinter for ♣ and 4♦ is void with 17+ and ♣-fit

1x-1/2y 1/2z How much do you loose to play 1z or 2z always forcing and use the jump for e.g. a splinter. e.g: 1♣-1♦-2♥ = splinter with fit ♦ and 12-14 or 18-19 HCP 1♥-1♠-3♣ = splinter with fit ♠ and 12-14 or 18-19 HCP 1♠-2♦-3♥ = splinter with fit ♦ 15+ HCP

eg.: (1♣)-1♠-(p)-2♣ What is the minimum you normally have for 2♣? What is the minimum the overcaller needs to bid 3♠ or anything else? If overcaller rebids 2♠ what is the minimum for his partner to bid 3♠? (1♣)-1♠-(p)-2♣ (p)-2♠-(p)-3♠

Do you have a rule when a bid is Exclusion Blackwood? eg jump to 5-level when a fit is found? ...what after eg a ♣ fit is found?