kgr

Q: You ruff a club because probability of having one hand with: ♦4 and ♣1+ is higher then singleton ♣? How do you estimate these probabilites?

I want to learn SEF and found: http://usf.bridge.free.fr/bridge/sef/index.html and http://pcoutant.free.fr/bridge.htm but both are different (one including eg 2SA fitté, 1M-3m is fit in one and strong one suited in other...). Is their an official SEF system or official site with SEF?

- 2D shows H and D with better D then H in my system. - DBL in standard.

That was kind of insurance I took with my 4NT bid. These Opps will not always decide correctly after it. [hv=d=n&v=n&n=sxxhxxxdqjxxcaxxx&s=sxxxhdaktxxctxxxx]133|200|Scoring: MP p-(3H)-P-(4H) p-(p)-4NT-(DBL) 5C-(P)-P-(5H) [/hv] LHO had a 6=3=2=2 with good spades. 5H was down 1 and 5C would also have been down 1.

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sxxxhdaktxxctxxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] P-(3H)-P-(4H) p-(p)-?? - - Opps are no strong bidders. I passed first..you never know that 3H is passed out. You bid 4NT now at this vulnerability?

1NT is 10-12. If you play penalty DBL over that (probably a good idea?), what is the minimum in direct position? Over weak 1NT (12-14) I play it as 14+, over 10-12 I would think the minimum is 12..?

I like this the most. I did bid 2♦ (probably because I hated DBL and didn't think about 2♦ :angry: )

1♥-(1♠)-2NT!-(4♠) 5♣-(p)-5♦ - - 2NT = 4+card ♥ and 10+HCP If you normally play 1st and 2nd controls, how do you play 5♣ and 5♦ here? 5♣ : only 1st control or also 2nd control? 5♦ : Should it promise extra's or is it obligatory with ♦ control? Would you bid 5♦ with: QJx=Qxxx=KQxx=xx ?

[hv=s=sxxhqxxdaxxxxckxx]133|100|1C-(1S)-?? You play 2D is forcing.[/hv] I don't remember the exact hand or how this auction continued, but bidding started like this and I had 5 card D and 9 HCP. I did bid 2D, but it didn't feel right.

It means you consider this hand as a GF hand after partner overcalled in ♣'s? You will bid 4♠ in following cases?: (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦ (3♦)-p-(4♦)-? (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦ (3♦)-4♣-(p)-? ...Not 5♠ I gues: (1♦)-2♣-(P)-2♦ (4♦)-p-(5♦)-? Thanks, koen

This problem was presented to me by another pair. I'm not sure that they play 3♠ fit jump. ..Suppose you don't and also no transfers. ... BTW: if you play 3♠ fit jump, I guess it is only forcing till 4♣?

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sak642ht83dxck953]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] (1♦)-2♣-(p)-?? - - Your agreements: 2♦: mixed raise. 2♠: Not forcing, but promises something. 3♣: preemptive

We have following additional agreements: - We play T-Walsh. 1♠ denies a 4-card Major, except if GF. - 1♣-1♠! (transfer ♦) 3NT = 18-19HCP and 4 card support (sorry for that). - 1♣-1♠! 2♦! = reverse with 4-card ♦ - 4m is almost always forcing. - 1♣-1♠! (transfer ♦) 2♥-3♦ 4♦ ... 4NT would now be RKC for ♦. I don't think we can ever stop in 4NT after we confirmed a fit.

[hv=d=e&v=n&n=skxhxxdkqjxxxxcaq&s=satxxxhkxxdxcxxxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] (1NT)-2S!-(p)-3D! (p)-3S - - 2S!: 5 card S and 4+minor (maybe a bit light, but it is NV MP's) 3D!: limit raise for S. 3S: minimal - - Opps are not very strong. LHO starts ♥J for RHO ♥A and ♥ back for your K. I now played small ♦ to the K that holds and ♦Q covered by RHO ♦A and ruffed by me. I now played ♠ to the K; and a small ♠ from dummy, small by RHO (The 9 I think)... - - Do you agree with play so far? Is it now best to play ♠T or ♠A? (I played the T but my partner said it is better to play the A). Note: 1NT can contain 5-card major.

For me it was also an obvious, but my partner (a pretty good young player) said I should have supported because he promised either extra strength or extra diamond length. He had a 7-card D: AKQxxxx Opps made 4S while we would have played 5Dx-2.

[hv=d=s&n=sxxxhxxxdakqjxxcx&s=sahaqxdtxcakjxxxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] 1C-1S! 3C-3D 3H-3S 3NT - - 1S: transfer D or NT 3S: 4SF/asking stop for NT 3H/3NT: 3H shows stop, followed by 3NT it shows H and S stop and extra's. We missed 7D. How should we have reached it (or at least 6D)? Thanks, Koen

I did rebid 3♣. Clearly not best. If you rebid 2♥ then bidding continues: 1♣-1♠! 2♥-3♦ ?? - - 1♣=shows 2+ (open 5=5=4=2) 1♠= transfer 1NT or ♦ (Can bid 1♠ without soft valus in majors) 3♦=real diamonds and not minimal (you play lebensohl). What now?

[hv=d=s&s=sahaqxdtxcakjxxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Opps always pass: 1♣-1♠! ? - - 1♣=shows 2+ (open 5=5=4=2) 1♠= transfer 1NT or ♦ (Can bid 1♠ without soft valus in majors)

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sjxxhjxxxdjtxcjxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] 1♦-(2♣)-Pass-(2♠) 3♦-(3♠)-?? All bidding kind of SAYC. MP's: What do you call?

I'm surprised that not everybody say that constructive raises are standard. Probably caused by 2/1 articles I read where they were always included. Question: - Are constructive raises still played by a passed hand? - Is 1NT also forcing with a passed hand?

Same for me, but because it is MP's: if LHO has less then 5 ♠'s then I let ♦T run after I ruffed last ♠ hoping to make 2 ♦'s for +1.

Thanks all for the answers. Diamond Q and 5 card ♠ was in West hand, so actaul hands not that interesting. I wondered if some kind of double squeeze was possible Seems like impossible to read the possition..Isn't it (Is that somewhat related to double squeezes)? Maybe that makes Hanoi's position better in practice?

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=saj7xhj7xdaqxxcxx&s=sqhakqtxxxdxxcajx]133|200|1D-1H 1S-2C 2H-3H 3S-4C 4D-4NT 5H-6H[/hv] Lead ♠T. What is best play in 6H?

Did I understand this correct?: 1) KQ9832 107 2) KQ983 107x In one we play twice to KQ and in 2 we play to K and finesse the 9 the 2nd trick. The difference is because in 1 we cannot pick up AJxx with West. do we also finesse 2nd round in 1 if the suit is trump in 6S and we see good possibility to run all side suit winners so that K9 in dummy can be left as last (and West AJ if he started with AJxx)

agree I thought 2nd seat it was normal to preempt sound. (..maybe not as sound as this hand)