kgr

I could be wrong, but I don't see why you should do that. - If ♥'s are 2-2 then East will return a ♥ and you are down if ♠K is off - If ♥'s are 3-1 then East will have to return a ♠, but you have no entry to your hand anymore to finesse ♥. ...And maybe opps lead 3th-5th and the lead was 3rd best?

After 1M-2M If LHO and/or RHO intervened with a suit bid eg: 1♥-(2♣)-2♥-(Pass) It seams logic that all bids are good side suit, except bid in suit opps is shortness. But what do you play if opps DBL? e.g: 1♠-(DBL)-2♠-(DBL) or 1♠-(Pass)-2♠-(DBL) How do you play a bid of 4x now? Shortness or good side suit?

You open 2NT (showing f.i. 20-21) and opps intervene with a natural bid on 3-level or 4-level. (without intervention you play Romex). What system do you play after the intervetion? DBL takeout? 3Y forcing? ..

I wonder if it is the same book as I have. For me this was one of the worst bridge books I have ever read. When it describes the play of a hand it is listing trick by trick, which is very unusefull. Maybe the first part is interesting for new players, but for me this was really a loose of time. At the end of the second part there could be some interesting parts for intermediates. But e.g. the part about squeezes is so short that it really is not useful. It is rather some examples of different squeezes. Maybe this book can be interesting if you are an absolute beginner who never read another book about playin the hand. But still you will not like the presentation.

0-7 HCP, relay to 2♣

What should he bid with: ♠Qxxx ♥Qx ♦AKJx ♣xxx Anyway, I don't like 2♦ at MP's. I bid 2NT

[hv=d=w&v=e&s=sakqjxxh975d64ct7]133|100|Scoring: IMP (Pass)-Pass-(1♦)-??[/hv]

I agree. But this situation is typical with a playing TD. RHO 'preserved his rights' and they played the hand. Most probably RHO did not know that he could have changed his call. Difficult to tell. TD will not always be called if it happens. We tend to prefer that as much as possible players come to the club. I'm not sure if the card was completely removed from the bidding box or not.

Following conditions were the same at 2 tables: North has a 5=4=2=2 distribution and 4HCP. They play 5 card Majors and 4 card ♦. In a MP tournement the bidding goes: 1♣-1♦ 2♣- All Pass. At one table North said before the start of the play that South should have alerted 1♦ because they agreed 2 weeks before that 1♦ could be artificial weak. They played the hand and the TD was called after the hand. East had a 5 card ♦ and could have overcalled 2♦ if he knew that 1♦ did not always promise ♦. Both 2♣ by NS and 2♦ or 2♦+1 by EW can make. The TD decided to change the score to 2♦+1 for EW. At the other table East took his pass card partly out of the bidding box before the final pass, but then he wanted to change it to 2♦. TD was called and he decided that the pass should stand and 2♣ was the contract. After the hand EW called the TD and N told him that they did not have an agreement about 1♦. He simply gambled to bid 1♦, hoping that S would bid a major. The TD decided the result of 2♣ was not changed. N on the first table was VERY angry about these ruling and said that he would never return to the club. ....unlucky situation for the TD or should he have avoided this?

[hv=d=n&v=b&n=saqt9654ha6d8cak2&s=shq43dq42cqt98765]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding was: 2♦!-2♠! 3♠!-All Pass 2♦=multi 2♠=preempt of invite opposite a 6c♥ 3♠=semi-forcing ♠ How do you bid to 5♣ or 6♣ ...How do you play on a ♣ lead?

After 3♦-3♥-3♠ you can not pass under game. Partner can pass 2♦-2♥-3♠. This is semi-forcing.

[hv=d=n&v=b&s=saqt9654ha6d8cak2]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] (P)-p-?? What do you open if you have following choices: 1♠: 5card Majors 2♦-2♥-3♠: semi-forcing in ♠ 3♦-3♥-3♠: GF in ♠ 4♦: Namyats 4♠: To play If you have the above choices, what typical min and max hands would you use for them? e.g: 4♦ is longer ♠ or more concentrated values in ♠ then 2♦-2♥-3♠? Thanks, Koen

I think standard is off, but think the DBL is in fact making it more useful to be able to preempt. I play inv min on and 2NT is very weak raise.

I play this. Hope this is what you were looking for (..after?): Dbl, 1NT and cues shows 4-4s and 5-4s, depending on the number of calls available. After (1♣)-(1♦): 4 options - Dbl = weak 4-4 (could be 4-3) - 1NT = good 4-4 - 2♣ = 5♥ + 4♠ - 2♦ = 4♥ + 5♠ After (1♣)-(1♥), (1♣)-(1♠): 3 options - Dbl = 4-4 - 1NT shows preference for ♦ - 2♣ shows preference for the major After (1♦)-(1♥), (1♦)-(1♠), (1♥)-(1♠), (1♦)-(2♣): 2 options - Dbl shows no preference or preference for the lowest suit - 1NT shows preference for the highest suit (or 2♦ after 1♦-2♣)

Agree that hand of 2♥-3♥ bidder should be inspected. Probably he was waken up by partner's alert. Not sure if 3♥ was making the misunderstanding obvious. The slow 3♥ probably helped. Depends of the player's alertness.

Surprised by the nbr of votes for 2♣. Is 2♦ not better then 2♣. Slam can still be possible if partner has a strong hand with ♣ shortage. If 3NT is the best contract then 2♦ will be a better start to find it out.

For me it feels most natural to play that slow shows...a 4 card Major. 1N-(2H)-2NT-3C-3H=4cH and no stop 1N-(2H)-2NT-3C-3NT=4cH and stop 1N-(2H)-3H=no 4cH and no stop (or 3D if you play transfer) 1N-(2H)-3NT=no 4cH and a stop Any idea why this is not more popular?

I don't see why. For me it even looks like you could open or respond with weaker hands with version 2? Does anybody play version 2 with weak 3rd hand openers and what is accepting the transfer in that case? Is it 10-14 or 10-12 and you respond something else with 13-14?

I now play 5cM, 4c♦ and T-Walsh where 1♣-1♦ - 1♥ shows 3c♥ - 2♥ shows 4c♥ and weak - 1NT is minimum with no 4c♠ and no 3c♥ ====== New partner wants to play: 5cM, 1♦ opening is unbalanced and 1♣ contains weak NT; with T-Walsh: 1♣-1♦: - 1♥: 2 or 3♥ and weak NT - 2♥: 4c♥ and weak - 1NT: 18-19 HCP ====== Do you have preference for one of those? (I thought versions of T-walsh were already discussed before, but I can't find it).

fyi: partner had dealer: ????? vul: ???? scoring: unknown]133|100|Scoring: MP ♠ Ax ♥ AJxxx ♦ KJx ♣ xxx [/hv]and bidding was: 1♥-4♣-(DBL) P-4♥ 4NT-5♣ 5♥

If partner has enough diamonds and no suitable alternative he can take a risk with a penalty pass, without requiring much in values. Heck 1D doubled making could be your best result available. That said, 18-19 is probably pushing it a bit. I would have said about 15-18 ..Still I think I agree with Gerben and would bid 2NT.

Is 1NT still showing 18-19 after partner's penalty pass? Partner will have something and it feels that we will likely make 3NT (with 5 ♦ tricks in partners hand).

What if the 1st control you give is above game or on the 5 level. Is it always promising 1st control then? E.g.: 1♥-2♣ 2♦-4♥ ?? Suppose 2♦ is forcing and 2♣ followed by 4♥ showed 12-15 pts with 4 card ♥ and good ♣'s. If opener now bids: 4♠= - Can this be 2nd control because of the level the bid is? - Can this be 2nd control because of responders bidding (not long in ♠)? 5♣= - This always denies control in ♠. Denies 1st and 2nd control? - This control is never bid with shortage and can also promise the Q (Pomises A, K or Q in ♣)?

RHO had a void in ♠. About opening 2♠: I think that the answers could have been biased because you already saw 4♥ coming back. Not opening 2♠ will often be better if partner has ♥'s.

Thanks all for the answer. (DBL would have been the winner here as North was minimum with 3=3=4=3 and both 4♥ and 4♠ did go down.) Seems like majority would open 2♠ (♥ too weak to be concerned) and would bid 4♠ if they were recplacing somebody who passed in 1st hand.