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Maybe blackwood is better than Quantitative. But I don't think we ever bid blackwood, so I think my partner will take it is Quantitative

[hv=pc=n&s=skqjt642h74dat72c]133|100|MP's; all non-vulnerable; you are dealer[/hv] What do you open? If you open 1♠ then it goes: 1♠-(Pass)-2♣!-(2♦) ? 2♣=Invite+ with ♣ OR Invite+ with 3c♠ What now?: - 2♠=6+c♠, NF - 3♠=6+c♠, Slam interest - 4♠=6+c♠, To play Both hands and bidding. How do you play?: This is how opps bid 6♠ at our table: [hv=pc=n&s=skqjt642h74dat72c&n=s3hakq86d4ckqj862&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1sp2c(Clubs%20OR%203cS)2d2sp3hp4sp4n(disagreem%3A%20aces%20or%20RKC)p5sp6sppp]366|200[/hv] LHO leads ♦8 (clearly a singleton or a doubleton). How do you plan the play

1♠-4NT I think my partner would that this a Quantitative (If I would ever bid this). Balanced hand with doubleton ♠ and 18-19HCP.(I'll ask my partner to be sure). Certainly not RKC, because then I would support ♠ first via 2NT.

[hv=pc=n&s=skt985hda75caqt92&d=e&v=0&b=1&a=2h(weak)]133|200|MP's[/hv] Non passed partner and better intermediates...Is this strong enough for you to bid 4♣ leaping Michaels?

I thought a 5-looser hand is ok for leaping michaels, isn't it?

[hv=pc=n&s=skt752hda75caq752&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p2h(weak)]133|200|MP's[/hv] Is this strong enough for you to bid 4♣ leaping Michaels?

The DBL was optional. Seems like everyone agrees with that here. But my partner told me that quick tricks are more important for this than points. He would never DBL with 9-10 pnts and no aces. He needs at least an ace and a trump honour for his DBL. Therefor he said that I had a clear pass (because of 3c♥, ♠K, ♦AQ). He had something like: Ax=Axxx=xx(?)=xx(?) 2♠X would have gone -2 or -3. I did bid 3♦ because I only had 3c♠ (iso of the optimal 4c♠ for my initial DBL) and partner corrected this to 3♥. 3♥ did go -1. At IMPs he would not have DBLed 2♠...should he also? Remark: This occasional partner is a far better player than me. And I think playing 2♠ DBLed on hands like these is one of the (..many) things where I can approve.

Biggest difference for our DBLs is that they include the normal 1NT overcall (because 1NT overcall is used for H+D). Therefore I think that 2NT after the DBL should be natural: 15HCP and stops, not enough to bid after 2H.

MP's [hv=pc=n&n=sKt753hda75caqj42&s=saj6h75dj64ckt753&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=p2h(weak%202)4c(Leaping%20Mich%20%5B5c%2B5S%5D)4h5sp6sppp]233|200[/hv] Weak field; Good partner. I did bid 5S, hoping it would show slam interest without D or H control. My partner raised to 6S. LHO had Sxx and I played him for SQ after he did lead HQ. I did go -1. My partner said that DBL would be my best bid after 4H, but answers here show that that is far from clear.

- What is DBL in your opinion? - should 4NT be 6c RKC?

MP's; weak field and good partner [hv=pc=n&s=sk75hkq7daq752cj4&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=1c(2%2B)d1s2h2sppdp]133|200[/hv] You play transfers over 1♣; so your initial options were only DBL or Pass (1♠ would have been a 4c♠ with longer ♦;; 1NT would have been ♦ + ♥) Partner could have DBLed with a 4c♠ to expose a potential psyche. What do you think partner has and what is your call?

MP's [hv=pc=n&s=saj6h75dj64ckt753&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=p2h(weak%202)4c(Leaping%20Mich%20%5B5c%2B5S%5D)4h]133|200[/hv] Weak field; Good partner. You don't have a lot of agreements with this partner, but are sure that 4♣ is Leaping Michaels; 5c♣ + 5c♠. What is your call now? EDIT: - What is DBL in your opinion? - should 4NT be 6c RKC?

IMPs [hv=pc=n&s=s5hkt95daj652cak5&n=sa62ha4d8743cq862&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1dp2cp2hp2sp3cp3dp4cp5dp6dppp]266|200[/hv] Lead: ♣2; 3th/5th Bidding and play are not important for me. I have a more theoretical question about the play of the ♦ suit for one looser: - 50/50 to play LHO for single x (T/9) or single H (K/Q) => - Is there - after the bidding and before the lead - a higher probability that honours are distributed? A team mate says: "Because opps did not bid it is more likely that points are distributed. Therefore it is more likely here that Diamonds honours are not together." ...Is this true? If you would see both hands after the bidding and before the lead, would the above make it clearly percentage to play the Ace iso finesse the J? - After the lead it becomes more likely that LHO has singleton D Q or K. I would think that this is a more important indication then the previous one. [hv=pc=n&n=s5hkt95daj652cak5&s=sa62ha4d8743cq862&d=s&v=0&b=11]266|200[/hv] Lead: ♣2; 3th/5th => How would you play the diamonds now?

LHO did lead a Club and not a Diamond, should that also be taken into account? On another hand my teammates were in 6S with no loosers outside trump and in S: dummy: xxxx; declarer: AJxxx. A club was lead (a suit bid by declarer even). I think it is better now - because of the non-trump lead - to play SA? The field was not good and also the 6D contract is not very good (2 aces missing). Not unexpected that we were the only pair in slam.

Thank you!! ...I'm getting: - DJ and play DA: 45% - Run DJ: 48%

In my calculation I used 13% for stiff DK with RHO, but only 50% of combinations are still possible after D2 with LHO... this gives 26%; or is that completely wrong?

Please let me know if below calculation is not correct: After having played a small Diamond and West follows with D2. KT2 - 11 11 KT 2 13 K2 T 13 13 K T2 13 T2 K 13 13 T K2 13 2 KT 13 13 - KT2 11 Only the possibilities with West having D2 are still valid. This gives: For playing the DA: - East single DK: 26% - East T singleton or KT Doubleton: 52% ; with H 3-3: 52%*36%=19% => 45% For Finesse: - West DK2: 26% - West DKT2: 11% ; with H 3-3: 11%*36%=8% => 34% What is wrong with this..or is playing DA better anyway?

Thank you all for the answers! After the lead the probability that LHO has ♦K will be higher than 50% because he didn't lead ♦. Maybe even enough to still finesse ♦ if we would have J♥

Thanks you all for the answers. I didn't matter in this deal because both finesse worked & Hearts 3-3, but I was curious what was the best line.

Thanks all for the answers. The bidding did go: 2♠-(DBL)-3♠-AP It was a good score because opps had 4♥, it was not a very good score because some pairs did go down in 6♥. Good opps would not have passed 3♠. So, still I wondered if it would be a good bid against good opps. I believe you :) What is the worst hand you open 2♠ with your regular partner NV vs V or NV vs NV in 3th hand?

IMP's; NV vs V [hv=pc=n&s=sqt742hj2djt72c85]133|100[/hv] 3th hand after 2 passes. I was highly critised for opening 2♠ on BBO (By 2 partners after the 1st left asking if I was drunk). How bad is it?

[hv=pc=n&s=skhq52dj98642cakt&n=sqj2hak73daq73c62&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1d(4%2B)p1hp2dp4dp4hp5dp6dppp]266|200|MP's[/hv] Small ♣ lead for ♣Q and ♣A. Is it best to finesse ♦ OR play ♦A and hope for ♦K singleton or ♥3-3?

1NT for me, but I don't have much experience with it because with my regular partner we play that 1NT is kind of Lebensohl (Leuvensohl) and therefor 2♦ shows 8-10. Easy 2♦ then.

I think this is easier to read: [hv=d=s&v=0&b=8&a=p1hdp2cp3dp3sp4np]133|100[/hv] - The jump to 3♦ shows for me a good hand with 8 tricks. It is NF after the 2♣ bid - 4c♠ by advancer is unlikely after the weak 2♣. 3♠ show a good hand for the earlier 2♣ bid and a ♠-stop. Maybe somethine like?: [hv=pc=n&n=saqth2dakq6432ck2]133|100[/hv] Hoping for ♣A I think that a 4c♠ for advancer is unlikely after the non-forcing 2♣. IMO, With your example hand advancer should give a (weak) invite with 4c♠. Therefor 3♠ in the given bidding is not minimal for the earlier 2♣ bid and rather showing a stop for 3NT. And 4NT is RKC for ♦

Yes, We have support DBL for minors defined in our system for following sequences: 1D-(P)-2C!-(2H/S) DBL - 2C=Clubs or Inverted D 1M-(P)-2C!-(2D/H) DBL - 2C=Clubs or 3cM-support 1S-(P)-2D-(2H) DBL