kgr

You come to the below and start playing Clubs: [hv=pc=n&s=shjtdcaj6532&n=sjthk5dckq74&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1c1d1h(4%2B)3ddp4hppp]266|200[/hv] ...looks good. Another suggested line to me was to play 1 Heart and then start playing Clubs. But that can lead to problems if a defender first discards to a singleton S before the second club ruff.

I play that new suits by opener are forcing and jumps are splinter; 12-14 or 18-19. Playing that I would bid 2♠ here. (otherwise 3♥)

This is the situation then: [hv=pc=n&s=shjtdcaj6532&n=sjt2hkdckq74&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1c1d1h(4%2B)3ddp4hppp]266|200[/hv] Opp has taken the second ♥ with ♥Q and returns a ♣. You are down if player with 4c♥ has a singleton ♣? (or if ♥Q winner can give his partner a ♣-ruff). ...but maybe it is the best play?

teams (IMPs) [hv=pc=n&s=skqhjt432dcaj6532&n=sjt32hak5d32ckq74&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1c1d1h(4%2B)3ddp4hppp]266|200[/hv] LHO starts with a small diamond for RHO's Ace. What is the best play?

Yes, I simply stated actual bidding and result. I didn't want to suggest that we should have gone to slam

I wonder if this is a psychology thing: If an expert doesn't know the odds, he will prefer the line on which he is not immediately down?

Thank you. I wondered if there were any other options.

I verified with my partner and he answered that: 1D-(2C)-P-(P) DBL-(P)-3C => 3C: 4=4=4=1 But agreed that hand in OP is another possibility After: 1D-(2C)-P-(3C) P-(P)-? I still pass. The only other option is 4C for me, but I'm too weak for that.

I would pass at MP's, but don't like it with single C and only HK as potential trick. 3♠ (or maybe 3♥)

Pass.

I would pass, but this is not clear (maybe I will bid 5D on some days). I think that I'm too balanced for 5D.

Looks like partner has both majors. Maybe RHO has H & D? Is RHO's pass really "4+ diamonds, no preference for a major" and therefore equal length in the majors. That seems strange, because 2D opener does not need to know that? Is RHO's pass rather "4+ diamonds, no interest for the majors" (f.i. with a single or void in one of the majors?) ..This one is not clear for me. - I would not pass - I would not DBL for TO, partner will likely bid 4H (or did I already deny a 4cH by my previous pass). It feels like we have points for game, but probably 5 minor is too much and only one stopper in 3NT (and that singleton H). => 3♣ (I'm afraid that this will be slow). I hope partner plays me for D (from the earlier pass) and C and that we don't miss a good game. (If partner corrects to 3D than I still try 3NT)

Clear pass for me. I don't have much more than what I already promised.

Clear pass for me (I don't mean that pass is clear, but I mean that I would always pass). - I would pass again if partner bids 2D.(and RDBL if that is DBL'ed) - I partner DBLs 2C then I bid 3C. (that should be both majors after having passed twice?)

Clearly 4♠ for me.

Last table of club tournament against weak pair: [hv=pc=n&s=skj2ha72dq72cak84&n=sa4hq64dak9643c63&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1np3c(transfer%20D%3B%20weak%20or%20strong)p3dp3n(6cD%2C%20no%20singletons)p4c(1st%20or%202nd%20control%3B%20Good%20hand%20for%20D)p4d(RKC%20for%20D)p5c(2%20of%205%20%2B%20DQ)p6dppp]266|200|MP's[/hv] How the play did go at the table: Club Q lead taken by declarer with Club A. Declarer now played a small diamond (!) and LHO inserted the DT (!). RHO did discard a Club. Declarer played 3 more trumps, followed by CK and a club ruff. Declarer did come back to his hand with SK and played a 4th Club, LHO not following anymore. Before playing from dummy, declarer started to think if the Club was high and while thinking RHO discarded a Spade (!). What is the best play?: - Take CQ with CA - play DQ to protect against D 4-0 with 4cD with LHO How to continue when LHO has 4cD?: Is this best?: - D-finesse - come back to the hand with CK. - H to HQ now? and how to continue if a HQ looses to HK? - If Spade comes back then SJ, probably -1 if RHO has SQ. - If club comes back then ruff, cross to hand with HA and D finesse. Play all trumps and end with S finesse if nothing else shows up (4th Club good) - If Heart comes back then HA, D finesse, and Spade finesse.

This also looks like the lebensohl 2NT, but lebonsohl is a lot more than a 2 NT bid. So in your bidding would 2♥ - 2NT - 3♣ - 3♥ be Stayman with a heart stopper conversely would 2♥ - 3♥ be Stayman without a stopper? (this is where I started tanking) or do you just borrow the 2NT puppet bid? From what I understand, in this use case lebonsohl is used after the takeout double of a weak 2 bid by the responder. I wasn't and am still not really certain it would work invoked for overcalls and advances. Quickly applying lebonsohl: overcalls of 2 of higher suit would still be natural and non-forcing overcalls of 2NT puppets a 3 club (3 level continuations would work) overcalls of 3 of a suit could still be game forcing overcalls of 3 level cue bid, could still be Stayman w/o stopper (I don't know what advancer would do here with out stops in the opps suit and no 4 card major, is a new suit to play? How could he force? if short in opps suit, how could he show a long minor with slam interest? It's not like he can retreat to a previously bid suit so sign off and forces become problematic) 3NT makes me a little sick to my stomach, but transfers the problem nicely. Being able to apply lebonsohl here has the advantage of one fewer gadget to memorize, but it seems like it will wrong side more contracts than 4 suit transfers... and as nekthen points out, I also lose the ability to pass in 2 NT as it is now a puppet bid. Thanks for the responses, it's given me a lot to think about. After a weak 2 by opps, we play 2NT natural (16-18 and good stops). So this is no Lebensohl 2NT. (2M)-2NT - 2NT: (15)16-18 and good stop (2M)-2NT-(P)-? - 3C=puppet to 3D - 3D= 5c-oM, Inv+ - cue= GF, 4c-oM - 3oM= slam try C - 4X= natural slam try (2M)-2NT-(P)-3C (P)-3D-(P)-? - cue= Both minors, 5-5 - 3oM= To play, weak - 3NT= 6cD, singleton M - 4C= 5-card D, 4-card C - 4D= 6-card D, singleton C - 4M= 6cD, singleton oM - 4oM= Slam Force oM - 4NT= quantitative, 5-card D

I appreciate that you try to make your posts as readable as possible, therefore my suggestion on you questions. You could use the hand editor, with only bidding selected; like: [hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=2d(Weak)2np3c]133|100[/hv] - 3H= - 3S= ... Or you could use some more returns and I prefer bids by opps between brackets; like: (2♥) - 2NT - (P) - 3♦ (Stayman) (Pass)-? - 3♠, - 3NT, 4♠, - 3♥ super accept in spades Isn't there a generic post with formatting advise?

My first thought was 2NT. (Not sure if I'm good enough to make this count as a +1 for you :) ). Note: After (2H)-2NT we don't play the same system as after a 2NT opening because we don't want to play in H anymore. 3C is a puppet to 3D and can be weak with D or S, or some other strong hands. Our bidding at IMPS would then be: (2H)-2NT-3C-3D or (2H)-2NT-3NT

We play Namyats but require a closed Major for that. f.i.: AKQxxxxx=v=Kxx=xx

I passed. LHO did lead a Heart from Qxx(?); Club finesse did loose to RHO having ♣Qxx. RHO did return a small ♠ (from KQx(?) ) and I played ♠J Making 4NT+2

IMPs [hv=pc=n&s=sajt62hkjt2d42c42&d=s&v=0&b=1&a=pp1c(2%2B)p1h(Transfer%20S)p2d(Reverse%3B%20denies%203cS)p3np4n(Quantitative)p]133|200[/hv] You pass in 1st hand; and then transfer to Spade. Partner bids reverse and this denies a 3cS. You bid 3NT...agree with 3NT? - 2NT would have been Lebensohl. - 2NT followed by 3NT would have been 13-14 HCP, but after the initial pass it should show something else, probably 10-11, but no agreement. Partner bids 4NT and you are rather sure that this is Quantitative. Partner could also have opened the bidding with 3C if he had a GF with both minors. Your Call?

[hv=pc=n&s=sa752hq72dqj6ckt8&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1c(2%2B)2h(weak)3c(transfer%20D%3B%20Inv%2B)p3dp3h(asks%20stop%20%5Bor%20other%20GF%5D)d(Hx%20in%20H)]133|200[/hv] How do you play RDBL and Pass here? Note: I didn't realize that when we have Jxx opposite Qx, then Axxxxx versus Kx is better for us than AKxxxx vs xx because opps cannot maybe not duck the first trick.

I was surprised by some of the answers in another topic about opening an rebid. Therefore a new topic to concentrate on opening and rebid with the following hand: [hv=pc=n&s=skqjt642h74dat72c]133|100|you are dealer[/hv] I didn't mention the vulnerability or the scoring (MP/IMP). Please indicate how these influence your decision. What do you open and what do you rebid (if partner bids 1NT; or partner bids 2C; or partner passes and LHO bids 2C)? Does your plan change if Hearts and Spades are switched? Note: I expected that 1♠ followed by 4♠ would be the favorite. - Less sure if Hearts and Spades are switched or if vulnerable; Maybe then opening 4H is better? - Less sure if partner passes and LHO bids 2C; Maybe then rebidding 2S/3S is better? ...I'm not an expert, therefore my expectations are not important. Thanks, Koen

Surprised by this. I thought 1♠ followed by 4♠ would be the standard bidding (even vulnerable). We had a discussion after the club tournament. I said I would bid 1♠ followed by 3♠ (Slam interest...the discussion was at the bar), but then thought that 1♠ followed by 4♠ was best. Note: Declarer did follow your line more or less and made; I think RHO has something like Ax=xx=KQJxxx=Axx.