HeartA

I would bid 3♦ as well.

2♠ or dbl. Since I play NFB, 2♠ is obvious. With a pd who doesn't play NFB, I would dbl and bid 3♠ over pd's 3♦. If pd, over my dbl, bid 2♠ or 3♣, I would cue-bid 3♥ and pull 3NT (if pd bid so) to 4 of (black) suit pd bid. If pd bid 2NT over my dbl, I would simply bid 4♠.

3♣, no other choices. If my pd bid 3♠ again (asking for half stopper), I might consider 3NT.

I noticed that some bid NT without stoppers (only care for shape). I have been against this idea. I would NOT (NEVER :)) bid 2NT with Txxx.

Ron, Did you see the difference of the sequences? The one you gave, dbler's pd rebid 2♦, while in mine, dbler's pd (me) bid 2NT at 2nd turn.

If you were my pd, I would not pass. I knew it would go to nowhere. If 3♠ were not dbled, it would not be a big loss. If 3♠ got dbled, let my pd bid whatever she would.

Justin, I completely agree with you. In my opinion, there is NO such hand that justifies the 2nd cue-bid. I think pd's 2♣ and then 2NT were telling a very weak hand, not enough to bid 1NT at first turn, and was unable to bid 3NT at 2nd turn, a choice with 6-7 hcp or so. And surely he has at most 4-card of ♣s. With the hand given by Hongjun, 3NT after pd's 2NT should be the right bid. 3N (or 3♦?) after pd's 2NT would be my choice, with awm's hand. With a huge hand of mega ♣ fit, 4♣ after 2NT should be good. While with the hand given by ochinko, I don't think it is strong enough to cue-bid even once. Even if you want to cue-bid once, 3♣ after 2NT should be sufficient. As the first hand given by Ben, dbl 1♠ is not good (if pd converts it to penalty?). But if you didn't find a good bid at first turn and decided to dbl 1♠, 2♠ after 2♣ is OK. After pd's 2NT, I would bid 4♥ directly. For the second hand, I would bid 2♠ (michaels) as Justin suggested. Since I couldn't construct a hand that justifies the 2nd cue-bid and I don't really trust my pd's bid (why would I partner with her? that's another story), I PASSED 3♠. It turned out that her hand was 12-count of 1444 (opener had 15 with 5134 and her pd 9 hcp of 2542). The good news is, it was not dbled and we got -300 only. The bad news is, our teammates didn't make 3NT (-1). Another good news is, our opps were blaming each other for not doubling :). Finally, my hand was, ♠J7xxx, ♥6xx, ♦xx, ♣K9x. My hand took two trick with CK and a ruff of ♦, while my pd's hand took one trick only (♦A).

Opps can run away and find a good fit (my short suit).

Agree with Ben. Over a minor, jump cue-bid means either means this is my suit, or another running minor asking stopper in the bid minor. I prefer the first usage. To have another good minor, I can cue-bid at 2 level and then bid my minor at 3 level. In short, (1m)-x-(p)-3m, natural, good suit. (1M)-x-(p)-3M, asking pd to bid 3NT with stopper(s).

So far, ben's analysis is the best. We know opps and they don't psych. Secondly, we didn't discuss lebensohl in such a sequence. So, as ben said, #1 and #2 are eliminated. By the way, it was team match and NV to NV.

Have you guys considered the possibility that pd has almost nothing (maybe a little in ♠) and 3♣s only?

2♠ is NOT acceptable. pd's 2♦ is inviting game and I have upper-middle range for my 1♠ overcall. Besides 2♥, 3♣ is another option. The danger to bid 2♥ is when pd had 2 or 3 ♠s and 4♥s and raised to 4♥ (with or without ♦ stopper). Though I think pd should not bid 4♥ with 3♠s support, it could happen. Other than that, 2♥ is a good bid. If you are sure pd's 2♦ shows ♠ support, than 2♥ is safe anyway, the danger of bidding 2♥ is almost ignorable. If you think that pd's 2♦ is just forcing, and not sure of ♠ support, and afraid pd raises ♥, then 3♣ is the second option. If pd raises to 4♣ (no ♦ stopper), try 4♥ (as if you hold 5-3-1-4). If pd bid 3♥ (5-card), raise to 4♥. If pd bid 3NT, pass (of course).

Your lho opened 1♠ and you pd dbled. The bidding went: (1S)-x-(P)-2C (P)-2S-(P)-2N (P)-3S(!)-(P)-? Can you construct a hand that justifies the second cue-bid (3S) by dbler (your pd) after you bid 2C and 2N?

If I feel like conservative, I would pass 2NT. Otherwise I would transfer to 3H and then bid 3NT.

PASS without hesitation, as Roland said. This seems a really clear-cut for me.

2♠? no way. I am choosing between 3♠ or 4♠.

Pass. If pd didn't have 3 or more ♦s, it's not my problem. To bid 1♥ with 2-card? unless the bid goes (1C)-Pass (me)-(1D)-dbl-pass-?

That is what I said :P. But I couldn't it it anywhere from this thread. Maybe I just talked to Mike last night on BBO (Mike, did I?) or the post was lost somehow.

5♦, exclusive RKC

With this hand, I would bid 4♥ directly after transfer.

completely agree with fred. I was thinking of pass or 1NT as well.

Read it carefully, Mike. The NT range is 13-16!!

I pass, not just because I got dead minimum, but also 4-3-3-3, and no controls on black suits. If the other table play 15-17 NT, the bidding could go 1D-1H-2H-4H (3H-pass/4H), or 1D-1H-1NT-2H, or even 1D-1H-1N-3H-4H. I would pass anyway, regardless of the scoring.

The "who to blame" or "assign the blame" is totally different from pointing fingers. This is to ask opinions about which bid is not a good one (or worst). So that we can learn from it. BTW, you always say "well done, pd" or "nice try pd" even if he makes mistakes and goes down of a cold contract, or let opps to make an impossible contract? I wonder how you learn to improve. In the "who to blame" series, I can be one who is most responsible for the mistakes. If I believe I am (almost) 100% right, I don't bother to post it here. I post these hands because I myself have doubts.