HeartA

Agree. To respond 2♣ at first round make life easier.

Though 7♠ was guess, but a reasonable guess. Note that North has 7 (not 6) ♠, even if South's ♠ were stiff Ace (not likely given South was void in ♣), it only required ♠ 3-2, not 3-3.

2♠ for me, too

Ditto.

I would bid 5D, too, both in IMPs and MPs.

agree

I wouldn't bid 3N without support with an honor, unless my side stoppers were very good. I wouldn't expect my pd's clubs were THAT good plus a side Q(xxx) (I would expect one more club and less strength). When I bid 3N, it is most likely we missed a slam facing xx, x, Qxxx, AKQxxx. BTW, I am usually aggressive, as some friends here can tell.

"a balanced 18-19 hcp"? Why didn't he bid 1NT directly after 1H? This 1NT bid seems weird to me.

I like this question.

Dbl shows at least 3-card support for unbid suits, or 17+ hcp with biddable suit (will bid it at the next turn).

Pass is my ONLY choice.

me, too.

Why did South cover pd's DT? I wouldn't.

7NT. :P I assume I have all the good cards since you didn't provide them.

This does not qualify for "non-min (and not good for slam)". I view this hand as DEAD minimum. DQx and CKQ doubleton can't count for full hcp.

4S, means I would bid 3S (3-card support, 10-11 hcp) had pd not jumped to 3D.

South bid 4S after 4H, and 5D after 5C. Even if South has wasted cards in clubs, losers North can count is at most one H if South's H were not good enough. North should take most of the blames.

Without further discussion, dbl to ask for heart lead is the default. I did read that dbl to ask "to lead the highest unbid suit", I guess this is not popular yet. BTW, pd didn't have a chance to dbl 5H, which is bid by declarer, even if he has AKQ of hearts.

To directly bid 6S over North's 4S would be a good bet. I suggested that South use RKCB in case North's holding Qxxxx,KQxx,AKx,Q falls in the "non-min and bad for slam" category.

Even if you play SAYC and 1D-2C is not game forcing, 1D-2C-2D-2H(!!) is good enough for game forcing. So any auction below game after that shows slam interest.

Fred, I dare to disagree. I think "4S showed a non-min that was bad for slam purposes" is a meaningful description, though not very scientific. "non-min" means more than 13-14, so around 15-17; "bad for slam" means lack of first controls (aces). That gives South a picture similar to the reality. And I think it is South, not North, who should use RKC after North shows "non-min". However, I do agree that North should bid 5D over South's 5C unless 5D has to be first round control in their agreement.

I like Justin's sequence.

I am against Ben this time, though I do agree to what Ben said: "what could north have for his "extra values" but some kind of red card winners that were not cue-bid". North has to have controls (2nd or first round) in diamonds for the "extra". I would use RCK directly after 4S. Even if North didn't have DQ, it is OK since it is North who will be declarer. South has 4(!!!) keycards, North, on the other hand, has no keycards at all, he has too much to worry. In the worst scenario, even if North has no control, 6S was not necessary bad. Since you didn't give out any info on side suits, opps has only 1/4 chance to find D lead. Without D lead, given that North has extra and no control in D, he must have good cards in other suits. D losers might be able to get rid of on H or on C, or some kind of squeeze. So, I assign 60% to South, 40% to North. Actually, I should assign more blame to South, but I have voted. :blink:

First hand, pass for sure. For the second one, hard to say. Pass most of times. It may depends on the score, the situation of match and the mood. There is no question on third hand, 1S response.

I don't see any problem here if you play 2/1 gf.