HeartA

Without NFB, this 3♣ is not forcing, nor it gurantees (usually it denies, imo) 4-card of ♥. It shows a hand of 6+ ♣, that is not strong enough for direct 2♣ bid (forcing to game or just one round needs agreement between partners, I think it is forcing to game), or weak for 3♣ (wjs?).

With all three hand, I would rebid 3♥ (splinter).

I think responder's hand qualifies for a mild slam invite with 3-card heart support (don't count too much for the diamond void after it has been bid by opener), so I suggest the following auction: 1♥ - 2♣ *) 2♦ - 2♠ 3♣ - 4♥ 5♣ - 6♥ pass *) I believe in bidding your longer suit first if you are strong enough to force to game. With a different hand (no heart support) I can always bid spades later if the bidding goes: 1♥ - 2♣ 2♥ - 2♠ As to Steve's example, I think it's safe to bid 6♥ over 5♣. Opener is apparently interested opposite a mild slam try, although he has no spade control, so he should have 3 aces. Roland If N-S don't play 2/1, I would agree with Roland's auction. In my style: 1♥-2♣ 2♦-2♥ 3♣-3♠ 4♦-6♥

First, you pretend to have at least three hearts, then your bid means you have no 6-card suits when you have a 7-card suit. How are you going to convince your partner afterwards that the clubs in your line are better than the hearts when your LHO jumps to 4Sp after your double? Look at the actual hand. Is it likely that your partner is going to leave you in 6C instead of correcting to 6H? East leads a small trump, and you're down in 6H while 6C is cold. When I dbl, pd could assume I have support for ♥. But after I bid MY suit, I am telling my pd, I have a strong one suiter hand, and (usually) denies support for pd's suit. When I bid ♣ at 4-level (or even 5 level), if pd still insists on ♥ with ♣Kx support, he wouldn't be my pd anymore. Does this make sense to you?

I know what you mean. You were referring to the other thread (if I get it right?). I might down-grade this hand and open 1NT, or bid 3♥ only if you open 1♣. This hand shouldn't be upgraded to 19 points after pd's 1♥ since the hcp were concentrated in short suits. It only qualifies for 3♥ bid, not 4♥.

Why is dble rediculous? I wouldn't dbl at the next turn. I would bid 4♣ over rho's 3♠, believe it or not. Then we would get to slam, not necessarily grand though.

I don't think I missed your point, Ron. My post is under "SAYC and 2/1 Discussion", isn't it?

If 1m-1M-2N were artificial gf, then the all structure would have to change, which is not the purpose of the post. if North got ♠xxx, ♥QJxx, ♦Kxx, ♣xxx, he has to respond 1♥, right? Then North should pass South's 2NT rebid. And I don't like 1♣-1M-2♦ with this kind of flat hand, and with (good) 4-card for pd's major.

completely agree, no matter South's 2N was 19-20 or 20-21(22).

I am one of the two who voted for dbl. After dbl, I might compete up to 5♣, and dbl opp's contract of 5-level or higher unless pd gives me some useful info.

This hand does not qualify for 4♠, in my standard. As I said before, 13-15 (including distribution points): 1m-1M-2M; 16-18: 1m-1M-3M, 19-21: 1m-1M-4M> This hand has 17 hcp plus 1 distribution point. But I would down-grade it a little since 10 hcp were placed in short suits.

Jimmy, Do you really think that South is strong enough to freely bid 2D? Did you notice that North-South didn't play NFB (negative Free Bids)?

Ben, You might mis-read hand #3. It was North who made the dbl. South's only (and questionable?) bid was 4NT.

Board #1 [hv=d=e&v=n&n=s96ha3dat9832ckq2&s=sak873hj952d76caj]133|200|Scoring: IMP bidding (opps were silent): North South 1♦ 1♠ 2♦ 2♥ 2♠ 4♠[/hv] 4♠-2 (with different line and defense error, could be made), while 3NT could be easily made with a possible over-trick. Board #2 [hv=d=e&v=n&n=s96ha3dat9832ckq2&s=sak873hj952d76caj]133|200|Scoring: IMP bidding (opps were silent): North South 1♦ 1♠ 2♦ 2♥ 2♠ 4♠[/hv] 4♠-2 while 5♦ was makable (♦K off-side, ♣K on side) Board #3 [hv=d=e&v=n&n=s96ha3dat9832ckq2&s=sak873hj952d76caj]133|200|Scoring: IMP bidding (opps were silent): North South 1♦ 1♠ 2♦ 2♥ 2♠ 4♠[/hv] 5♦ dbl off 4 (the other table 4♠-1, makable) and we lost 15 imps.

Game is more than 50%: ♦K on side plus none ♥ lead.

Thanks for all the responses. I was South and 1m-1M-4M indeed shows 19-20 (21) hcp of flat hand. We don't use many conventions as I believe that too many conventions are not good for intermediate players. Though he agreed that he should not pass my 4S, I had some sympathy for him since his hand was short of controls.

West could expect pd to have ♣A and ♠K as later entry for him to ruff a ♣. To lead Q from doubleton is very possible. I'd rather to go down when West's Q was singleton than when West got Qx. In the later case, I would feel very silly. After all, if West's Q was singlteon, I can say "East could over take and give West a ruff anyway"

We discussed when we were filling out the convention card before the tournament started that 1 level overcall could as low as 6 hcp (KQJxx, nothing else). And yes, with 9-card fit (Assume pd's 1♠ guaranteed 5-carder), I would certainly raised to 2♠ without ♣A.

I absolutely disagree with 2♠ bid. Without ♠KJxx, I could overcall 1♥. After my pd's 1♠, my hand is not minimun. Actually it was in the upper side of mid-range, imo. 2♠ was the right call, if I opened 1♥, not after I OVERCALLED 1♥.

Cash an honor, that's for sure. If 10 or Q drops, we have 3 tricks already. Assume both sides follow low. Now playing 3 from North gets you 3 tricks when either side got Tx (East couldn't fool you by playing T from QT), or East has Q(T)xx, or West has QTx, or East has Qx, or East has singleton (West has QTxxx). It loses only when West got Qx in which case to cash AK wins. When West got Qxx (and East Txx), or QTxx, it is a guess to play drop or finesse after J loses to Q. In summary, to Cash A/K and play small toward J is the winning (percentage) play.

Hmmm, nobody is on the same page as me. I was sitting East (all day on Sunday's tournament). It is a very new partnership (only bidding and playing a few over BBO). Anyway, we did well and got X 2nd (A/X) and 10 gold MP. For the first hand, I think my 2♣ was a very good bid. It showed something between 2♠ and 3♠. If pd was very weak for the 1♠ bid, he could rebid 2S and I would pass. If he got some useful cards (semi-support my H suit) and decent 5-card ♠, 4S was very promising: QTxxx, Ax, Ax, xxxx, or Axxxx, Ax, xxx, xxx, or Axxxx, Jx, Axx, xxx, etc. For the real layout, I don't think his hand is good, 4 spades only, 4 clubs (which was not good because it is his LHO, not RHO had ♣ suit), and very possible duplicates in ♦, and stiff in my suit. For the second hand, it was a borderline to open 1H or 2H. If he had bid 2N (Ogust), I would have answered 3S for sure as I treat AJTxxx as good suit. Then he could have cue-bid 4C to see which Ace (or other honor) I had. When I was able to cue-bid 4D, he could bid 6H directly. In my opinion, 3♦ was the worst bid, which denies ♥ support. I could raise to 4♦, but in case 3NT would be the only good game? After all, my ♥ was not a bad suit. For the first hand, he said he was not sure what 2♣ meant. But after my 3♠, it was clear. He said then my 2♣ was forcing to game, which I don't agree. What hand did I have could force to game after I overcalled 1♥? For the second hand, he said he was worried that opps might find ♠ fit. Why worried about things that didn't happen? Three cards heading by Q was very good support, which he should have showed with his first bid. By the way, the opps did open 1H, but also stopped at game.

nickf, Can you answer my question for the same hand, what would you rebid if you open 1♥ (yes, 1♥!) and pd raised to 2♥? To me, it doesn't make sense to ask for a rebid while I would not agree with the first bid at all.

I am with Roland, too

I don't have any choice but pass.

I have never known there is such a link to rate players on BBO. I am "advanced", not too bad. :)