HeartA

3♦. With ♠KJ987, ♥AKJ4, ♦x, ♣xxx, I would bid 3♥, a good 4-card.

2♥, the only option. My strength and shape.

The lead was ♠Q and declarer ducked. Then West shifted to ♥. After 3 rounds of ♥s, if East cashed ♣A/K (trick #5), and then play 13th ♥, there would be a promotion for West (JT after AK9xx). The duck at trick #1 was a bad play and did give opps a chance to defeat 2♠.

I forgot to give upper bound for the bidding. A. 9-11 (or bad 12) with 4-card, or 8 to bad 11 with 5-card B. good 15 to 17 with 4-card support. C. the same.

Hongjun, Your post wasted me 5 minutes in trying to find the promotion. Write me a check of 50 Euro for it. You have my address.

OK. It looks like West has 4 trumps to the Jack. I will test trumps first. If they are 3-2, I have a claim. If West indeed has ♥J(9)xx, I will give him the trump trick (pitch a ♣ on dummy). 1) If he returns ♠ and ♠ are 5-2, there would be a triple squeeze: Throw ♣ on ♠Q and ♦ to Q (assume DA played at trick 3). The ending is: West: Sx, --, --, Cxxx. Dummy: Sx, --, --, CAxx, East: --, --, Dx, Cxxx, South: --, Hx, Dx, CKx. On last trump, West was forced to discard ♣, dummy discard ♠. East is squeezed. 2) If he returns ♠ and ♠ are 4-3. I get back to hand with DQ and draw last trump. West is squeezed on black suits. 3) If he returns ♣, I win in hand (what did East discard on first 2 ♠s?). And I think I have guess on West's distribution. Since West didn't continue ♠, I assume he has 4414, I will have a simple squeeze against him. I don't have the double squeeze anymore (I could be wrong).

Agree with Ben. 3S after H are agreed as trump is OK, but needs understanding between partership. To avoid misunderstanding (for new partnership), 4D is better.

A. good 9 hcp with 4-card ♠, or 8 with 5-card. B. good 15+ hcp with 4-card support. C. good 5-7(8) hcp, most likely 5-card.

ditto

I will choose the same line as Roland does.

1. 2NT. A, A, K without intermediate cards, faces 12 hcp hand, is not good for 3NT (A, A, K good for suit). 2. 6S. even if pd doesn't have CQ, I can still expect him to have Jxx or xx of clubs. CA (if pd doesn't have it) is most likely in opener's hand. 3. dbl, and correct pd's 3C to 3D. 4. Agree with 1S, I might dbl though. I think I would pass 5D.

I choose 4C over 3C or 5C (all of them are reasonable)

Hand 1. 1) Yes, dbl is perfectly fine. 2) Yes, I would by bidding 5♠, asked for ♥ stopper. Hand 2. I would simply bid 3♥. Small ♥s, doubleton ♦KQ, 4432 shape, these are not that great. If pd doesn't have ♣K, it would be most likely in opener's hand (off-side).

1. Yes (well, almost). Your hand qualifies 2/1 for sayc (a little weaker for 2/1) if pd opens a major. After interference, you have to make decision to upgrade (3D) or downgrade (pass) your hand. If negative dbl doesn't guarantee (another) major(s), dbl would be ok, too. 2. In my opionion, dbl is another option (see above). 3. I am a strong believer that re-opening dbl shows extra. After pd's reopening dbl, I would cue-bid 3♠, then bid ♦ (at whatever level, even after pd's 3NT) at the next turn, IF someone passed for me (since I wouldn't pass 2♠), or I mis-clicked the pass.

1. 4♥. 2. I open 1♦ with the system I play. 3. 4♥. 4. 4♥. 6. ♠2.

penalty.

When East showed out at first ♣, it was (almost) a claim hand provided West had at least one ♠. Honestly, I could get wrong at the table if I didn't plan it carefully, as it happened quite often to me.

That's what I voted. I was the first who voted for 2♣.

Since we are talking about "standard", ♠AT974,♥7,♦KQT5,♣Q72 is not qualified for opening.

4S. If we don't have a game, the opps would have something.

Though I am not sure of the real "standard", I don't agree with Ben's treatment. First of all, after 2/1 response and with a fit (major or minor), the bid should force to at least 3 of the major or 4 of the minor. If one takes 1S-2D-2H-2S as 5-2 "fit", I don't agree either. Without a real fit, 2/1 responder should bid 2NT or 3D, none of which are forcing. Similarly, after 1S-2D-3D, it should be forced to 3NT or 4D. In the sequence 1S-2D-2H-3S, responder has 10-11 hcp with 3-card support for S, inviting game. While 1S-2D-2H-2S, responder set the trump for early slam trial (slow arrival).

What are you talking about? Do you know what NFB means? (or I misread your message?) With NFB, it is a clear-cut to bid 2♠. Only withOUT NFB, there is disagreement for double or 2♠. Though I am not totally diagree with 2♠ (without NFB), this hand is not as good as it looks. If pd's hand is ♦ one suiter (singleton or void in ♠), this hand is nothing except ♥A.

1♦-(2♣)-2♠: forcing 1♠-2♦-2♠: forcing 1♠-2♦-2NT: non-forcing 1♠-2♦-3♦: forcing 1♠-2♦-2♥-2♠: forcing 1♠-2♦-2♥-3♠: non-forcing (invitational) 1♦-1♠-2♣-3♠: non-forcing (invitational) 1NT-2♥-2♠-3♣: forcing 1NT-2♣-2♥-3♣: forcing

2♣.

While I agree with Roland most of the time, this time I don't agree. 2♠ is certainly forcing (2/1 responder promised to bid again, or forced to 2NT). 2♠ is not necessary weak. With 16 hcp (or even more, add ♦A to the opener's hand, but with 6-1-3-3 or 6-2-2-3 distribution) and one suiter (not good enough for 3♠, not suitable to open 1NT), I would rebid 2♠. I agree with others that all bids before 4♦ were OK. I would bid 5♣ over 4♣. By the way, West's 4♣ should show 6-4 in ♠-♣. That West didn't bid 3♣ over 2♦ confirmed a minimum opening hand.