HeartA

Bid slam in spades with first or second round control in their heart suit I have a revised version. Bid small slam with second control, cue-bid 6♥ to show first control. But I don't think this hands qualifies for 5♠ since you don't have either of A or K of ♠. I prefer 4NT actually. It's safe to assume pd to have some control for the 2♠ overcall.

Mike, I agree with you.

With a pick-up pd, I am not sure he would understand what 5♣ means, especially when ♠ suit was heading my Q(?) only. I prefer 5S or even 6S.

4♣. pd might take it as splinter. The message is clear for support of ♥. He should cue-bid 4♦ if he had ♦A, or even 4NT with maximum passed hand and ♦ control (A or K).

ditto.

♦3

IMO, most of the questions are not really questions. Be SAYC or 2/1, ♣ should be 5+ in this sequence. I don't think so, especially if they play 2/1. not possible. of course. usually 4, 3 should be the minimum. first of all, 2♦ does not necessarily deny 6+ spades. even if 2♦ denies 6+ spades, 2♠ should show extra strength. 2-3-3-5 is quite possible. 6-card clubs should not be a surprise. With Jx doubleton, I wouldn't raise at this moment. see comments above.

4♦ seems obvious to me. If partner's hand were 2-5-5-1, he could bid 4♠ over 4♦.

No serious 3NT or last train between partnership.

I voted for 2NT as well. Hopefully my HQ could help to contribute one stopper (face Jxx, for example), or even 2nd stopper (face Axx or Kxx). 2S is my second choice, but ♠s are not good enough. If HQ were SQ, I would choose 2S over 2NT.

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sjxxhxdkxxcaxxxxx&s=sakqxxxhadjxxxckq]133|200|Scoring: IMP play 2/1, South opened 1S and West overcall 3♥: S W N E 1S 3♥ 3♠ P 4♠ all passed[/hv] Who is (more) responsible for missing the 6♠? ----- One more hand. [hv=d=s&v=n&n=sjxxhxdkxxcaxxxxx&s=sakqxxxhadjxxxckq]133|200|Scoring: IMP play 2/1, South opened 1S and West overcall 3♥: S W N E 1S 3♥ 3♠ P 4♠ all passed[/hv] who is bid beyond game?

Three possibilities would come to my mind when I hold this hand and heard RHO opened 1♠: dbl->2♣->2♠. I think I would choose dbl eventually. After pd's 2♦, I would try 3♣ since I chose to dbl. if pd rebid 3♦, I would pass. For the hand given, pd's 3♦ or pass were acceptable, though pass is preferred.

ditto.

2♦

No, I didn't intend to bid again after my dbl unless my pd forces me to (which is not likely). I would pass over 3C/3D or even 3H (if possible).

me too. I would open 1NT. But we didn't the choice. Ben (or whoever) already opened 1♥ for us. :P

Who or where defines dbl is more than 3♦? Besides, my 2 Aces are worth more than a "typical" 8 hcps.

With a opening hand and after pd's opening, pass for me is completely out of the question. And I don't expect pd to reopen with a minimum opening hand. Besides, with 4♥s heading by 10, it is not good to set a trap pass. Yes, I would dbl.

In this situation, I would bid 2♦ to keep bidding going if pd so desired. But this is different from problem G, in which, opp's interference gave me the chance to not to pick one minor over the other.

agree. ♦ should be the suit to lead. pd has a good ♦ suit and stopper at other suit(s).

I would try a throw-in if ♠Q appears. But if SQ does not appear, I would finesse ♦.

I basically agree with Ben's analysis. I don't know which to vote (East to open or not is borderline).

This reminds of a hand we played a few days ago in a tournament. Pd's hand was ♠-,♥AKxx,♦Kxxxx,♣Axxx. The bidding went South pd North me 1♦ P 1♠ P 2♣ X All Passed we got 9 tricks (-4, forgot the vulnerability) and very good imp (maybe top, had it been MPs)

Let me rephrase your statement: I don't play with players whose way of bidding are fundamentally different from mine.

If my pd dbl with such a hand and "correct" my 3C to 3NT, he wouldn't be my pd anymore.