HeartA

completely agree with you.

Assuming 2♦ is weak 2, this is a clear dbl for me.

I myself haven't played strong clubs for a long time. But I don't think players would down grade their hand to open 1M with 16-17 two suiter, unless the points are really "bad": QJ, KJxxx, AK, Qxxx. But people might upgrade their hands to 1♣ opener if two suiters are really good. But it depends on player's personal style and partnership agreement. If opener frequently "upgrades" his hand, then pass 3♦ might be better choice.

3♣ is forcing (one round), but not game forcing.

What "I don't get it" is the "double fork ". It does not exist. if dummy (east) wins first ♦, ♣ cant set up. if west wins first ♦, he cant play a ♠ toward hand. There is no line that can get ew 9 tricks, double dummy or single dummy.

I don't get it. What is the opening lead (I assume it was a ♦)? And which side won the ♦ lead? If it were East, there would be no (sure) entry to ♣. So I would assume it was West who won the opening lead. A ♥ lead toward dummy? North can take ♥A, and continue with ♦. What EW can get is 3♥+2♦+3♣. If East won the first ♦ (♠ toward West ducked, ♥ toward East also got ducked), declarer had to play ♣ from dummy, North can win 2nd ♣ (as East has no more entries) and continue with ♦. I don't see a way EW can get 9 tricks.

Agree with first paragraph. I would bid 4♦. If pd has a perfect hand, we might have a slam. Who knows.

3♣ game forcing? in what system?

Not guaranteed with 8 ♣. But with North's hand, it is a "must“ to raise to 6♣. If it fails, it would be South to blame. From South's perspective, swith of position of an Ace would be no slam. By the way, West (1♠ opener) did lead a ♦. Start to ask? Would you expect, or image that North had such a pure, more than maximum hand (hcp wise, 1NT can be 18)? Tell me how would you ask and bid slam.

I was sitting South, holding the hand of long clubs. At the table I just mentioned "I am not sure 4♣ would be asking or 4NT". But I do think North should raise it to 6♣, hold a hand of extra-maximum, full of controls, no wasting hcp. Even if I ask, after one key card is missing, could I expect he had 3 Aces+2 Kings?

With 4-3-3-3 shape, I don't feel comfortable to raise to 3 level. But if responder bid 1NT, after opener's 2m rebid, it would be awful to bid 2♠. 3♠ doesn't sound right either. As in the real case, after opener's rebid of 3♣, either 3♠ or 4♠ doesn't sound right.

vulnerability is red to white.

Familiar partnership (I was a kibitzer). West's hand: ♠AQJxx, ♥Kx, ♦A10, ♣AKxx East's hand: ♠108xx, ♥Axx, ♦Jxx, ♣xxx The bidding went without opp's interference: 1♠ - 1NT - 3♣ - 4♠ - 4NT - 5♣* - 6♠. Who is more responsible for the overbid? *14-30

First time partnership. North and South are BBO "expert". North held: ♠Kxx, ♥AKxx, ♦Axx, ♣Axx South held: ♠Qx, ♥x, ♦xx, ♣KQJxxxxx West opens 1♠, the bidding went: (1♠) - 1NT - pass - 5♣. A slam is missed. Who should take more blame?

ditto.

Opening 3♠ at second position, just absurd, period.

I also agree that South took more blames. South with a fair share of hcp and 2 Ace (!), didn't do anything. First round redbl or NT, and/or raise pd's ♠ after he bids again. North could bid 3♠ at 2nd round, with a 5-loser hand.

This is certainly good sequence.

I admit I wouldn't be able to find 7♥. I might end up with 6♣ or 6NT, depending on partnership.

I agree with Rik, bidding 2♣ first and then 2♠ if possible. If, after I showed 2 black suits, she still wants to play 3NT, I would let it go.

both are penalty, of course. take out? for what? If pd has a minor worth to bid at 4 level, bid it.

pass.

4♠. WTP?

It is true that "2♥ would not have been natural", but it can get some info for holding of ♥ from partner. For example, if partner bid 2NT, I would know she has reasonable ♥ (2-3 cards with honors). Then I can bid 3♥ (or 4) to indicate ♥ is my real suit.

I voted pass by mistake. I thought the hand shown is the facing partner's 3♣ bid. I would vote 3♥ instead. So, please discount one "Pass" and add one 3♥.