Jlall

Yeah I like 2S a lot the first time, but I guess a lot of people would play it as a fit jump or something. If 2S the first time was not an option then 1S is the only choice. 3S would simply be way too much after RHO has shown 4 spades. After that your passes were auto.

3C then 4D, I think 4D direct here shows good trumps.

Actually pretty sure I learned a lot about this type of situation because Fred posted similar things like 5 years ago about this, and also because Hamman pretty much completely echos what Fred says if you ask about hands like this. Yay forums.

I never thought I'd sound so old but... people really don't pass enough.

I bid game

Sometimes the opponents bid 5S you know Isn't that bad whether you have an unspecified 1 suiter or 2 suiter? Even if it is worse with a 1 suiter, that could still be a good tradeoff for all the times they don't bid 5♠, which is more often than when they do bid it... And I don't get it, sorry if I'm being picky but if you have a problem with the idea then why did you quote me agreeing with Ken instead of quoting Ken lol. Yes it is bad whether you have an unspecified 2 suiter, but it is way worse if you have an unspecified one suiter. If partner is going to go to slam, he often has a fit for 2 of the 3 suits anyways. If you have shown a 1 suiter he can very rarely bid slam, even if he fits 2 suits you rate to have the third. I would view it as a complete disaster every time it went 4S 4N 5S and 4N had shown a 1 suiter, even if partner doesn't have a slam decision he won't know whether or not to double a lot of the times since he doesn't even know your suit. I feel like the fact that you think kens idea is good means you are underrating how bad it will be when we are 1 suited and LHO is going to bid, that is why my post addressed you and not ken.

Sometimes the opponents bid 5S you know

just bid game!

I would definitely pass. It is usually right to pass with Hx and a balanced min imo.

Also opposite 2245, it is easy to see how 6C could be better than 6N because partner can pitch his spade on the heart and then ruff a diamond, ie xx Ax Kxxx AJxxx. This hand probably passes 4N, but getting to 6C is possible after 2D. Also, if 1345 is possible for a 1N rebid for you, even more reason to check on partner's shape since 6C is going to be right veryyyy often opposite that shape. Basically there is a lot of room between 1N and 4N, and I don't see any reason to be blasting. In general I think people bid 4N far too often rather than using their NMF system. I think by bidding 2D we will be able to get to some slams that would be missed because partner would pass 4N.

Also, many people, especially on this forum, might rebid 1N with 1435. Getting to 6C opposite that shape could be a big winner, and we need very little for slam then (x Txxx KQx AJxxx). We could also need to be in 6C opposite 2425 hands where partner has KQ tight of one pointed suit, and we only have 1 stopper in the other pointed suit, and we have to knock something out (eg Jx Axxx KQ J9xxx).

How about trying to find partner's shape. If he has 5 clubs, our hand improves a lot. Also, if he has four hearts, our hand improves a lot (KQJ opp Axx is wastage, but opposite Axxx it's great). Starting with 2D will help us find slam opposite Kx Axxx xx Axxxx/ Kx Txxx Kx AJxxx type hands that 4N will miss. We will be able to find out this shape via 1C-1S-1N-2D-2H-2N-3C. Against that, bidding 2D may help pinpoint the lead against us when partner has something like Kxx Axx Jx AJxxx, and we make 6N when they don't lead a diamond and spades come up 3-3.

Heh, even if there are a lot of guessing combos slam is probably ~70% double dummy opposite 13 + 5 clubs or any 14 based on TimG's numbers. That is huge.

Construct maximums for partner. A ton are bad slams. But I still bid 4NT because there are some good slams and because I can't stand not to. But someone should do a sim, I wouldn't be surprised if 6NT is not a favorite opposite 13 with 5 clubs + any 14. Would easily take that bet. Seriously if you think that slam is bad opposite that range then why are you bidding 4N?

What are you guys talking about not bidding even 4N on the first hand? We have KQT of partner's suit, and 31-33 HCP. Seems like a perfect situation to invite slam, getting there whenever we have 33 HCP, or when we have 32 HCP and partner has a 5 card suit (opposite our KQT), and probably not other than that. Yes I know that 33 HCP is not necessarily a slam, but it certainly rates to be. Richard: Just respond 1S. This doesn't preclude getting to NT when it's right even if you have a 4-4 spade fit, and it does have the advantage of not misdescribing your hand immediately. If partner raises to 2S you can still attempt to get back to NT.

I don't think 3S is a GF, and think you should bid 3S when you have an invite in a minor (because 4m is mixed/preemptive/whatever). As such I think 4C over 3S just shows a minimum, and 4D over that 4C bid is NF. I don't see why we need 3S as a GF, sure it's better if we have slam but they've opened and the ranges are quite wide already and we have no invitational bid, so I'd much prefer to have more accurate game bidding in this situation.

I think passing the X is significantly better than any other option.

FMP

Not shoving is a huge mistake.

lol

pls bid 3H, kthxbai

4N

1D then 2D then pass

Even if West being 1=7=5=0 is very very unlikely, you will of course have catered for this by cashing the ♣A before the ♦A ;) . Just kidding. That's exactly what you should do. lol