andy_h

1) Just curious - was my original plan, after stayman and 2♥ response, to bid 2♠ (inv with 4♠) then if partner bids 2NT correct that to 3♦? What if partner had bid 3NT over 2♠? Anyways, partner is showing a decent club suit possibly AQJ9 or KQ109 or better but my hand seems quite useless so I'm not prepared to play in 2♣XX. Partner can still have a 4cM but I'm not prepared to risk forcing to game (5♦) to look for it so I will bid a quiet 2♦ for now. If however, my original plan was to bid a NF 3♦ over partner's 2♥ stayman response then I will quite happily bid 3♦ now since I can't have 5+♦&4M GF hand. 2) I have a stiff in partner's suit, so why should I have to game force with this hand when I can show diamonds and invitational hand? So 1NT is what I bid if that is my systemic bid to later show an invitational hand. After the given proceeded auction I am not deterred from my original plan so I bid my longest suit, 4♦. I understand partner can have 5215 but he's more often going to hold 5233 or 5224 or 5242. I'm tempted to bid 5♦ rather because there's lots of ordinary hands where partner may not raise us given that we were under pressure of competitive bidding so our 4♦ doesn't exactly promise an invitational hand. AKxxx xx Axx xxx would be an alright game or AQxxx Qx Kxx Qxx or AJxxx xx Kxx Axx but if partner's spades is not headed by the Ace such as KQ10xx xx Kxx Axx then it ain't good. So I'm going to bid 5 if we're vul.

If in doubt, jumps are? If in doubt, doubles are? And preferred style of carding (primarily attitude or count?)

Under "standard" agreements, no it is not forcing. That is because opener can jump to 2♥ to set a game force, thus 1♥ can be passed. There is a style that people play in which new suits are forcing (thus a jump bid is a splinter) but I think it's too unplayable and plus it's not "standard".

Yes, you are right on of your judgement to open this hand. But I'm sure there are conservative people around who would prefer to pass with this hand to avoid a "rebid problem". But one point you should consider is that you are sort of left in a pickle if and only if partner makes one certain bid (1♥) as you are capable of handling everything else (I would raise 1♦/1♠ to 2). And plus, the opponents will be have to rely on their overcall structure (since we opened) if it is their hand and that is certainly better off had we passed and left them be with their opening structure. Anyway having said that I strongly believe in rebidding 1NT with these type of hands if responder bids 1♥. For one, a singleton Ace in partner's suit is not that bad if partner decides to remove 1NT to 2/3/4♥ and I think 1NT is the least distortion of them all. Thinking about it another way, when I open 1♦ and rebid 2♣ I would prefer that to be a pure 5-4+ so we won't ever need to play in a silly 4-3 fit at the two level. I also want my 1m-2m rebids to promise 6+ cards so that helps responder's judgement in bidding a good 9 trick 3NT game or in competitive auctions. Responder would love his Hx holding in clubs much more if he knew 2♣ was 6+cards rather than potentially a 5 card suit. And furthermore, 1NT just could the correct partial to be in! I would even go further to say that my preferred style is to be allowed to rebid 1NT even if the singleton was an x (say Kxx x AQxx Kxxxx) because I love being able to show a pure 5-4+ or 6+m in constructive/competitive auctions than for responder to be in doubt. On another note, other hand shapes which creates similar problems are of course 1-3-4-5 and 1-4-4-4.

Good luck finding the sacrifices at the right time, if you know when that is.

I'm with the 1♠ camp and do realise partner's in 3rd seat. If partner bids 2♥ I have just enough to bid 2NT (weak hand) to sign off in 3♥.

3♥ is a mixed raise? How do you show a good raise? Anyway I would consider this hand a perfect 3♠ preemptive raise and at these colours too. 2♠ doesn't seem justice with 4 trumps and a singleton and my hand is full of quacks so I don't consider this as a mixed raise. And yeah, 4♠ is crazy. What if the opponents only have a 5-3 heart fit...?

I would open all of these 2♠ at 1st seat r/w and consider the first two a near maximum (I'm allowed to have a max for a preempt, right?) with the last three being ok. Really really hate being 6322 especially when r/w and the extra random jack doesn't do anything for me unless it becomes ♠J. I would definitely prefer something like ♠KQJ109x ♥- ♦Kxx ♣xxxx than the last 3 hands. Being in 2nd seat doesn't affect my decision on these hands since my good suit decreases the chances of opponents penalty passing. And yes, I would open stronger hands 2♠ r/w in 2nd seat such as AKQJxx x xxx xxx but otherwise I tend to open 1 (or 3) under other conditions. Assuming your last question is asking for 6322 shape, the minimum would be KQJ1098 (no intermediates for the opponents!) but that doesn't mean I would always do it as the state of the match might affect my decision.

Either way could be right. Give partner a decent hand like x Qxx AQJx KQxxx and 5♥ could go down on a bad break or a club ruff, or x Qxxx Axxx AKxx and 5♥ is in jeapordy, or x QJxx AQxxx Axx and 6♥ could be decent. I'm going to double and just take the money if that's what partner agrees even though that's probably his most likely action.

Double. We can still have game on if partner had the awkward hand that had no spades or a heart stopper. In that case the opponents will have some spades but then we must have a fit or two in the minors. With this decent hand it'd be unlucky if this balances the opponents to a making 4♠ but RHO's silence over his partner's 1♥ should preclude that.

I'll bid 6 too.

If you want to put all strong hands in 1♣ maybe you should consider taking up polish club? Otherwise you'll just be behind the rest of the field who are playing that or a strong club system as you will need to deal with how to handle the normal hands that open 1♣ naturally and the GF hands as well as sorting out responder's strength. Otherwise if you're looking for something just for 2♣ then I recommend weak with both majors which is by far better than weak 2 in clubs. This is provided you don't need this 2♣ bid for something constructive that's required for the hands you can't show when opening a 'strong' 1♣.

If declarer had that hand (presumably ♠A was K) then rising with ♣A already gives him the club as his 9th trick.

Happy Birthday mate =)

1) 2♠ 2) If 3♣ is not GF then I bid that, otherwise I bid 2NT leb. I pass 4♥ 4) I duck and predict declarer will probably cash 1 top club pitching a heart and take a diamond hook. I'll then win and fire back another club or a heart depending, and hoping we will get 2 more tricks with club+spade or heart+spade. If declarer had 2425 he might've opened 1NT or if he had 1435 he might've thought longer before playing rather than playing then tanking.

3♠. With 5 perhaps we would've been able to bid 2♠ or 4♠ the first time, or we could bid 2♥ then 4♠ or we could bid 3♠ like here and then follow it up with 4. Let's say if LHO had passed 2♥ then partner should definitely bid 2♠ with 4 of them even with 41(53) so we can find our fit asap. And no, I wouldn't open this first seat at white but change the hand to AQxxx Axxx Txx x then I would.

That is true but you have to consider as well 19+6 +9=34 so the K♣ and the A♥ will be hard for partner to hold notwithstanding upgrade arguments you can give him ♥K ♣K as well. If South has that then it doesn't matter who wins the first club because if South wins it first he can play back a heart to now declarer's blank ♥A.

Rising ♣A is playing for declarer to have exactly Kxx Kx AKQJx Q10x and that would be playing for 2 off.

North, for rising with the ace of clubs. I'd feel pretty sick if partner had stiff ♣Q. If the case for rising with the ♣A was to keep South's club entry intact for the hearts, ducking works just as good when South knows how the heart is distributed (assuming North gave count on the 1st trick) as it will beat the contract when south has ♥Kxxxx or ♥Axxxx. But ducking caters for partner having ♣Q rather than king.

What's with the questions of asking at what level? We have a 9card suit and partner has opened!

I agree. yep As you guys wish but the fact that opener denies 16-19 balanced makes action safer. If you pass, opener may not bid 3NT on his 20-count with ♥-Qxx or Jxx. ♥K is in the wrong suit but it increases the chance of no wastage opposite. You might assume that double is GF, that responder can't pass 4♣/♦ but that is unstated. Guess I'll raise anyway. I think opener should bid 3NT with the 21+bal hand because not all 4-7 hands should we be acting over the preempt. And with the 16+unbal hands opener may have good enough suits to act himself. Otherwise, I'm with the 1) pass and 2) double camp.

Aren't you missing the entries to strip the red suits if you do this? Like if the DJ loses to the queen they play a heart you duck they play a heart you win and ruff a red card and you still have one red card left. That's what I thought first then realised if ♦J loses to the queen and they switch to a heart, win the first heart, ruff a diamond and exit a heart. Then they're forced to complete your elimination.

I've totally snookered myself by passing on the first round. I would have overcalled 2♥ (unfav w/7222 doesn't warrant a 3♥). Given that I somehow did pass... 1) 3♥. Everything is a guessing game now huh? At least now LHO will think twice about (if any) how many spades to bid. 2) Is the splinter limited to 10-12? If so I double and hope to get them in a 4-3 fit but if not I'll just pass taking what's left of my plus score.

Assuming no other agreements (like bidding 4♣ over 3♥ is GF) then I would have doubled 3♥ for takeout - if partner bids 3♠ over that I will bid 4♣ which should obviously be game forcing, if 4♣ then I'll bid 4♥ and if 4♦ I'll bid 5♣. Given the cirumstances it has left me in a pickle. Partner's 4♥ suggests the most likely pattern they have is 3145 so I'm going to bid 5♣. Let's hope it won't be construed as a club cue for spades.

Pity North didn't have the ♠7. Not sure who to blame, since I generally play double, double, double (values, t/o and penalties) over artificial conventions so I think I would have replicated the auction. However I'm not sure what pass over 2♦ then X the expected 2♠ is.