DWM

[hv=v=b&s=skqxxxhqtxxdxxxxc]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding all our way, Partner opens 1C - 1S 2C - ?? I was thinking that we probably have a missfit here, if so I should shut up as soon as I could. However, if he is unbalanced and min my Partner has little choice but to bid clubs again. So I bid 2H Should I have bid at all? Should I have chosen 2D over 2H, are these bids forcing?

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sqxhaxxxdkjxxcaxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding has gone (all NS, playing 2/1) 1S - 2D 4H - 4NT 5S - 5NT 6S 4♥ is a splinter singleton/void agreeing ♦ 5♠ is 2 KC in ♦ plus the Q 5NT is a king ask, 6S shows all 3 outside diamonds Few questions about this hand 1. Is a splinter agreeing diamonds a good treatment for the 4H bid, we keep 3H as showing a hand with reversing strength. 2. Should I have used BW in this situation. 3. Was a King ask risky? I thought that I could duck out at the 6 level if he shows 0 or 1 kings. 4. I placed Partner with AKxxx K AQxxx Kx Should this have been a million miles away? I thought that if P had either the Q♣, J♠ or spades were 3-3 7NT is cold. At the table I guesstimated that 2/3 of the time at least one of these would happen so I should go for it? I did not think P would have opened 2C with 20/21 points holding a singleton K♥.

Should have added X was alerted as a pen double. I cannot see why 3NT is to play unless I allow for partner to have forgotten to bid his hand first time round. If we can make 9 tricks in NT surley we could make it in clubs and pick up more points. I do strictly follow the idea about bidding your hand once with a preempt, however, partner sometimes does nasty things like forces me to bid again. :)

The second hand of the night where I got confused about NT was the following 1D - (4H) - P - (P) 4NT What does that 4NT mean, and what should I reply when holding XXXX AJT Ax QXXX

First of two hand sI played last night where we got in a mess with a NT bid. Firstly it highlights a need in our system for some more agreements. Hand 1 Bidding has gone P - (1♥) - 3♣ - (X) 3NT What should that 3NT bid mean, if anything? A small aside. At the table I could not think of a meaning for it, but thought it really should be some sort of artificial bid as there is no way it could be to play. To try and minamise damage I passed and planned on taking action if it got doubled. Did I do something wrong here?

Double would generally show a penalty. I do try and not use blackwood unless I have to as I have read that for every 10 times it is used about 9 times it is used in error. Looks like I should have thought a bit more before bidding the 4NT this time.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=sxhqjtxxxdaxxxcxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP [/hv] Bidding has gone (1NT wk) - 2C [Landy] - (P) - 4H (P) - 4S - (P) - 4NT (P) - 1/4 KC - (P) - ??? Couple of questions here Is the RCKB bid correct, or should I show my A♦? Assuming you do use RCKB how do you continue after being told 1/4 KC? At the table I threw away the idea that P has 1 KC as he bids on past 4H. This left me with trying to work out what sort of hand P could have had and not doubled to start with. How would you continue? From either the 4S bid or the 1/4 KC bid.

Bidding has gone P P P 1♠ 2♦ 2NT What nice uses are there for 2NT in this situation? I assume that if it is passed found to the 1♠ bidder it is very rare that they will pass, so a delayed 2NT bid could show the balanced hand with diamond stop. Could Leb be played here or would it take away too much for its benafits.

Same hand as I posted before, but from the other side After 1♠-(P)-1NT-(2♣) What would double show? Is it some sort of take out or will it show something else as no bidding space has been taken up?

Vun = None. Scoring on the night was MP, but more interested in IMP scoring as that is what we play when we have league matches

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=stxhq98xdakxxcqxx]133|100|[/hv] Bidding has gone 1♠-(P)-1NT-(2♣)-2♥-(P) What is your next bid, playing 2/1.

I can certainly see Helene's point about keeping it as to play. When we have tried other things as non natural meanings we have messed up at times. However, I look at this as part of the learning curve. To try and save mistakes I think we will try non-serious as if one of us forgets they are more likely to continue cue bidding with the big hand.

I have been getting into situations where we have agreed a major below 3NT and started to cue bid. What do people use the 3NT bid for in these situations?

I would bid 1NT on hand one as it makes all my future bidding a lot easier.

One thing I thought of bidding for the first hand was 2♥ to show spades and a minor. My thinking before I made this bid would be. I know that I am 5-4-2-2 and 5-4-3-1, or 5-5 in the two suits would be better. However, all my points are good and in the two suits. Pard knows I could be 5-4. I could have a min of 9 points if being preemptive (ok, if being preemptive ideally I should have more shape.) At a lower level; bids like this seem to get opposition all flustered, may be not the best argument, but it is true. This bid would get the whole of my hand out at once, or at least to an extent where I am only answering questions. I assume that it is not a good bid as no one else has mentioned it. I have made calls like this in the past because, on the whole, I have gotten away with it (expect when I mess up the card play). So my question is what changes would I need on this hand to make it suitable for such a pre-meptive bid.

I assume the 4♥ bid is pre-emptive as they have many other ways to get there with a strong hand. Saying that, in the leagues I play in, the jump to 4♥covers a very wide type of hands. When I have doubled hands like this in the past I have been forced to sit back and watch the opposition make 6+ tricks with cross ruffs and make their contract. Therefore I think that a double should have some element of control in ♥, or maybe 1st/2nd round controls in the minors and 2♥'s to shorten declarers/dummies trumps Although a double does not rule out looking for slam I would expect a pard of mine who doubled to think we would be better off punishing them rather than playing in 5♠+. The double can show any strength of hand, but the stronger the hand the more likely that we are missing a slam so the bigger the penalty we need, therefore, the more defensive the hand has to be. I think there are far too many type of hands to show with far too many bids (but isn't that the purpose of the pre-empt) so pass should be a minimum hand or intermediate with nothing else to say. This includes preferring to support spades to defending the hand. Is this typically considered a forcing pass situation?

Not sure how good a fall back it is, but if in doubt I take a new suit at the 3 level as forcing.

Assuming a 4-0 break in ♥'s, otherwise this is not a problem hand. If RHO has the 4 hearts there is a possibility for finessing the J and 9, although I am not sure how to guarantee the entries into dummy. I would hope that they both don't get blocked. Then I will lose A♣, A♦ and K♠ Can't see anything apart from a finesse in spades if LHO has 4 hearts. Unless there is a way to clear him of diamonds and leave an option of ruff and sluff with clubs or free finesse in spades/hearts.

How does the double make your hand ballanced enough to bid 2NT? Or does 2NT only promise an almost balanced hand?

I play 1x - 1y - 2NT as 18-19 bal with 3 card support for P 3NT as 18-19 bal without 3 card support for P. Would shave off a point or two for 3NT with a long running minor.

Is there anything wrong with this alternative? 1♠ 2♥ 2♠ 3♥ (planning to bid 4♦ over most bids) 4♦/♥ ..... With the thinking that showing a 6 card major takes priority over a 4 card minor. Or is it a case of finding a 4-4 fit in any suit takes priority over a major fit when you think you are in slam land?

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=shakqt87dkt87caj2&s=sak754h94da532ct7]133|200|[/hv] Two part question. How would you bid this from scratch, using a 2/1 system? If you had the bidding sequence 1♠ 2♥ 2♠ 3♦ 4♦ What would you take 4♥ to be?

My Pard and I have just started playing 2/1 (from the Mike Lawrence CD) and at the same time going away from 4NT is always ace ask with the only expection being over a NT opening. To help prevent too many slip ups in the future I would appreciate any rules to go by or suggestions to help us realise when the other one has bid quantative or ace asking NT.