kgr

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sq87hakq963d2ck64&w=s964hjt852da8c987&e=skjt3h74dqt6cqj52&s=sa52hdkj97543cat3]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♥-2♦ 3♥-3NT All Pass I did go down because I started with a small ♣ in dummy and I was allowed to make the 1st trick with ♣T. I then played a ♠ to ♠Q and did go down.

[hv=d=n&v=b&n=sjh98dak985ck8762&w=sqt96haq532dj43ct&e=sak842hktdqt72cj9&s=s753hj764d6caq543]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] This was the full hand and the bidding: 1♦-(1♠)-DBL-(3♦) Pass-(4♠)-DBL... ....You see that the DBL was good.... But I wasn't good enough to pass it :) - (pass) 5♣-All pass -1

My partner DBLed. He is around the same age as you and I thought it could be related to that. ;) He argued that if I have ♦A then it will likely be down and probably -2.

and the West needs to see that he has to play his ♠K immediatly? (Assuming you take the 1st trick in hand and play a ♠ to the Q)?

[hv=d=n&v=b&s=s753hj764d6caq543]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♦-(1♠)-DBL-(3♦!) Pass-(4♠)-?? This can easily go -2 if you can get some ♦ ruffs; Do you DBL if that is penalty? PS1:...Do you DBL if it is penalty like (partner can run without ♠ and a min hand PS: Do you think it is best to play DBL as penalty here, or is it better to play it as take-out. eg for hands with 1=4=3=5...?

It was not in the poll, so I thought it was very bad. Non-vuln I would open 4S. I think I have too much offense to open 2/3S.

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sq87hakq963d2ck64&s=sa52hdkj97543cat3]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♥-2♦ 3♥-3NT ap You play 3NT after the above bidding. LHO leads the ♣9. (opps lead 3th/5th if you think that is important). What is your plan? I see: - Develop ♥'s (hope they are 4/3 and that ♠Q is an entry) - Develop ♦'s. (hope you don't loose 3♣'s and 2♦'s) What is the best play?

2♣ forcing. Ok, I'm with you so far. So then what if you hold say x KJxxx Qxx AQxx and wish to rebid 2♣ nonforcing? 1NT (we rather bid 1NT on hands like that because we play 2C forcing)

I would if ♣Q was ♦Q or ♠Q, but with singleton Q I think 3♣ gives a misdescription of where my points are?

2S would be a trial with S 2NT would ask and partner will bid 3C/D with medium hand and pts in C/D 3C/D would be 5/5

[hv=d=s&s=sahaq9xxdkxxckjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♥-2♥ ?? 2♥=constructive 3-card raise, 7 good till 10 pts. 3♠ now would be shortage ♠ (singleton or void) and slem interest.

2♣ forcing.

[hv=d=s&s=sa9xxhkqxxxxdxxcq]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♥-1♠ ?? We have the agreement that 3♣ is a ♣ splinter with 4c♠ and 12-14 or 18-19. And 2♠ is a normal raise (we don't raise often with a 3c♠). My partner prefers 3♣ to show an unbalanced distribution. 2♠ would show a more balanced hand. I prefer 2♠ because with the minimal hand the ♣Q singleton is not worth to be mentioned. Partner will also mis-evaluate ♣Kxxx and with ♣xxxx he will expect more pts in the other suits. ....Given the bidding agreements, what bid do you prefer?

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=saqtxxxhkxdt9xxxc]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] I wondered how it was possible that me and my partner didn't take 3♦ as ♦-GF. The reason is that the actual bidding was different: 2♦!-(Pass)-2♠!-(Pass) Pass-(DBL)-Pass-(3♣) 3♦ 2♦=multi 2♠=preempt or invite for ♥ My first pass showed a weak 2♠ and 3♦ showed a weak 2-suiter. What do you think of 3♦ here?

Tx ..4S-4NT-5H-6D

With a GF 55 he would rebid 3♦. ok, so partner is like 4-6 GF? Make that Jx KQxx AQxxxx x then, same concept. Then he would have bid reverse by starting with 1♠ (xfer ♦) and rebid 2♦ (xfer ♥) So partner is not 5-4, or 5-5. Partner is also not 4-6 GF. So it seems like partner must be invitational when he bids 2N showing diamonds and hearts (else he would start with 1S first)? Then when you show that you like diamonds, he can GF. That being said, it seems obvious that when he bids 3H he is still looking for the best game, and when you bid 3S he is no longer interested in 3N (he has short clubs) so he bids 5D. It does not seem possible in your system for partner to be trying for slam since he would start with 1S then show hearts with a GF hand with 4H and longer diamonds, and he would bid 3D over 1N with 5-5 GF. Is this accurate? FWIW if you want better answers to your problems when you give an artificial system it would help if you listed everything you knew about the auction so we wouldn't have to guess. If everything I said is right, 5D is an extremely poor bid. Partner has already limited his hand by not starting with 1S first, and he has a super max for that limit! He surely should try for slam in this context. I mean slam is great opposite as little as Axx xx Kxxx Axxx and thats an 11 count. That is right. 4♦ would have been RKC for ♦ now (♦-fit confirmed by 3♣). That is your choice then iso 5♦ ..or 6♦?

Not strong enough if no fit? Or he forgot that he could reverse? (I think a combination of both) BTW: I appreciate that you all try to understand our system and answer the question :(

With that agreement, it's clear to bid 3♦. To be more clear: partner's 2♠ bid denied 3c♠. Otherwise he would have bid 3♥/3♠. Seems like 3♦ is hoping for a ♦ fit? I find this really hard to believe. You would always bid 3H/3S to begin with when you had 3 spades? This seems to be the equivalent of saying you would never pass a weak 2S opener with 3 cards in spades which seems pretty ludicrous especially vul at imps, and especially when we know partner has hearts (so if he has a pretty good hand there isn't much need to preempt them immediately rather than trying to buy it in 2S). Mostly the 2♠ bid would show Haert length and deny 3+ Spades. It is not impossible that partner had a 3c♠ but it is unlikely.

With a GF 55 he would rebid 3♦. ok, so partner is like 4-6 GF? Make that Jx KQxx AQxxxx x then, same concept. Then he would have bid reverse by starting with 1♠ (xfer ♦) and rebid 2♦ (xfer ♥)

[hv=d=s&n=sxhakxxdaxxxxxcxx&s=skqxhxdkxxxcakt9x]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♣-1♦! 1NT-2NT! 3♣!-3♥ 3♠-5♦ All pass 1♦=xfer ♥ 2NT=xfer ♦ (and 4c♥) 3♣=max for ♦ What was the biggest reason for missing 6♦?

With a GF 55 he would rebid 3♦.

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=sxhxxxxxdkxckxxxx&s=saqtxxxhkxdt9xxxc]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Thanks all for the answers. 2♦!-2♠!-(3♣) 3♦-All Pass Lucky that opps didn't DBl and could make 3NT.

With that agreement, it's clear to bid 3♦. To be more clear: partner's 2♠ bid denied 3c♠. Otherwise he would have bid 3♥/3♠. Seems like 3♦ is hoping for a ♦ fit?

My question was more about bidding 3D then about what it should mean. Let me rephrase the question. You have the explicit agreement with your partner that 3♦ now shows a 6c♠ and a 5c♦ and less then opening values. Do you bid 3♦ or is it too risky Vul at IMPs?

But 2♣ does not show more strength then 1NT? Don't you think he showed slem interest by first bidding 3♥. He could have assumed a ♣ stop after my 1♣ opening and denial of 4c♠ and 3c♥?