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Edmunte1

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Everything posted by Edmunte1

  1. The main problem on this kind of boards is to evaluate the hand to the closest type of hand and to anticipate the further development of the events. So which bid is closest: a) 2♠ showing 11-16 , 5+♠ B) 2nt showing 15-18 bal, with 1 1/2 stopper c) dbl + bidding 3♠ showing a good one suited hand, 17+ d) 3♠ showing a 14-16 hand with a good long suit My choice is either a) or B), and i prefer B). About second bid, if i chose a) i pass. If i chose B), i'll take a shot and double in MP's, but at IMP's pass is still probably right
  2. Giving count on second card would have helped. So considering playing UDCA, and signaling present count, you'll play the 3 from intial 5 card holding and the 6 from an initial 4 card holding
  3. [hv=d=w&v=n&n=sjxhjdkjxxcjxxxxx&w=sakxxxxhxxxdxxxxc&e=sqxxxxhakxdqxckxx&s=shq10xxxxda10xcaq10x]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] This was the full hand. So acting was the good decision this time. Even if you bid 5♥ and go down one, or you bid something else (4nt) and reach the great club contract, you will still score well, considering that 4♠ make.
  4. Tough one, John. My choice is 4♣ natural and forcing. All the other calls seems worse: -3♠ -playing a 5-2 fit and getting shortened? (5143, 5152, 5233 are likely shapes) -doubling seems even worse, 4/5♦ will be often partner's call So though it's pushy and we may end overboard, at least we will play in the right denomination
  5. I wouldn't have opened. And now, what is changed? I still have that not so good club suit, ♥Q looks completely unuseful for offense, 1♥ opener still can be strong, and partner (who probably has 5+♠ and 2♥) didn't found a bid. So i won't put my neck in the strap. It's a standard position for OBAR bids, but it not seems the right moment for entering the bidding.
  6. I play 2♥as GF any hand or both minors and 9+hcp. I'll bid 2♠ with 4♠+5♦, but with A9xx x AJ10xxx xx i'll force to game
  7. I consider partner's double as take out for ♠. My bid is 2NT (best used as Scramble here). What should my double mean? This is a matter of discusion between partners and style, some considering it as penality, other as card showing.
  8. IMP's, dealer V, vul. --- , and you hold as South: ♠ ------ ♥ Q108632 ♦ A102 ♣ AQ102 and bidding goes V ----- N ----- E ----- S 2♠---pass ---4♠----? 2♠ -weak two. Your turn
  9. Pass, no fit with partner, only 1spade stopper, bad positioned for bidding 2NT. I'll just try to get a plus score. I would have bid 2♠ if desperate
  10. I think french methods work pretty well here -from 642 - 6 (highest from XXX) - the reason is to be easier for partner to read the lead from a weak holding -from Q62 - 6 - trying not to lie the length. Of course partner has to figure it out
  11. I've played both ways, and it's obvious better playing as the weak NT type, for simple reason that it's the most frequent. So sound overcalls, pas followed by double showing a strong balanced hand seems best.
  12. Tough position. Let's see our choices, considering we are playing 2NT G/B: 1)2NT, followed by 3♦ should show 5-5 and 12-14 hcp 2)2NT, followed by 3♥ should show 6+ good ♥ and 12-14 hcp 3) a direct 3♦ should show 5-5 and 15-17 hcp 4) a direct 3♥ should show 6+ good ♥ and 15-17 hcp 5) dbl showing support for all the unbid suits or very strong hands (18+) 6)pas and waiting for partner to reopen, if he has some playing strength I see only 2 possible choices 6) and 2), my choice is 6)
  13. 1. I would have doubled without discussion 2. I would have bid 3♠ showing either a strong hand with minors or a strong one suited hand in a minor, followed probably by 4♥
  14. 2♥ is the normal choice. I prefer playing in a 9 card fit instead of a 6-7 card one, tghough here (in ♠) i have the advantage of being on lead.
  15. Knowing that partner has 5 diamonds with ♦K, ♠Q and ♥A i would like being in grand, even against very weak oposition. Simply the slam is too good. 7NT seems the best choice, even if we have an unexpected ♦ loser we still can take 6♠+1♥+3♦+3♣. Next choice would be 7♦, for circulation matters if the trump is 4-0 and avoiding a ♦ ruff.
  16. I'll definitely will balance. The main idea is when they play 1NT is almost like we play 1NT. I don't want to play 1NT with a 6 card major, maybe we don't have communication to cash spades, when 2♠ contract has much better chances of success. About the average force of our line, considering partner's double as penality (15+, tghough many players, including me, consider a 13-15 NT as a strong one) is 16-23 hcp, so it's a very good chance to receive a decent hand from partner
  17. You can't win them all. It's important just to win more than you lose. In IMPs the efficiency of one action can be calculated by making the win/lose raport: IMP's won X percentage of success IMP's lost X percentage of failure For example you bid a 40% vulnerable game. Let's consider the other table stops in part score. Then, the win/lose raport will be: Win: 40% X 10 IMP= 4 Lose: 60% X 6IMP =3.6. So it's better to bid than to pass In your case, i definitely will pass. Overcalling 2 of a minor should show a good hand or a very good suit, especially vulnerable.
  18. 1. After (2♠) i would have bid 2NT (15+ - 18). The third spade and good intermediattes in ♣ make me act, trying to protect our game/partscore 2. After (2♦) i would have doubled, showing a 13-15 NT or a strong hand, in my methods. If partner passed (2♠), i'll do too. Pass followed by 2NT shows minors in my methods. It's obvious that 2♠ opening bid has more preemtive effect than 2♦ Multi. But these things happen when you have 2 at the price of one ;)
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