TWO4BRIDGE
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Everything posted by TWO4BRIDGE
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If you define a 3-level new suit bid exclusively as a splinter, then how would Responder make a control bid w/o shortness? I don't think you would want to "jump" . That is why I think it should be defined as a "Ctrl bid--which could be shortness" .
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Let's see how far I come "unrealistically" . First, I decide to treat this hand as a long minor and no 4 card Major: 1NT - 2NT! ( long diam, weak or strong ) 3C!(1) - 3S! ( the strong hand, Sp cue-- could be shortness-- no Ht Ctrl ) 4D!(2) - 4S! ( 1/4 ) 5C!(3) - 5NT! ( dQ + cK; denies sK, so the 3S! bid must have been shortness ) 6C!(4) - ?? 6D = no cQ or doubleton 6NT = cQ ( NT shows feature in "asking suit") 7C = cQJ 7D = doubleton ( or stiff K in this case ) (1) = preaccept ♦ with at least honor-3rd OR honor-doubleton w/max (2) = Minorwood; must have a ♥-Control, so no 2 quick losers in a side-suit. (3) = ♦Q-ask because 4NT/5D = to play, and 5H! would be "kickback for Kings" in Minorwood (4) = must be a 3rd Rnd Ctrl-ask since all the side-suit K's are accounted for.. hoping for the ♣Q reply. EDIT: Responder also is thinking that Opener has only 2 Ht losers at most to get rid of.
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Realistically, I'd only be in 6D....
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Was it somehting I said? or bid?
TWO4BRIDGE replied to kenberg's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
I think I "got it" now ... thx. :-) -
Was it somehting I said? or bid?
TWO4BRIDGE replied to kenberg's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
Thus, after the min/max by Opener, Responder's rebid with the long Ht hand: 3H = no shortage 3S!/4C!/4D! = long Ht hand with respective shortage -
After an "accept", I would take it as a cuebid. You have room to "jump" to show a splinter in any of the other suits. EDIT: "Jumping" to show shortness is probably NOT a good idea. The 3-level new suit bid would be better served as : Ctrl cue--"could be shortness". After a "no accept", I would be looking for a NT game ( if i have the values ), and a 3-level new suit would show stop(s).
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S/he is playing 2NT! = no accept and 3C! as "accept " Others play 2NT! as a "preaccept" and 3C! = no accept.
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Was it somehting I said? or bid?
TWO4BRIDGE replied to kenberg's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
Zel... I have a question about one particular sequence: 1NT - 2D! 2H - 2S! ( a ) = 2NT/4NT invite; ( b ) = Cl is 2nd suit; ( c ) = long Hts, slammish 3C! ( max ) - ?? 3D! = Clubs is 2nd suit = ( b ) hand 3H = long Hts = ( c ) hand 3S = ?? undefined 3NT = to play = have the 2NT invite ( a ) hand 6NT = to play = have the 4NT quant ( a ) hand+ What do you use 3S for ? -
I think you have a GF 1 suiter ( if you have a method to show that.... perhaps the self-splinter in Cl over 1NT! ). But I think you are a little shy to show a GF 2-suiter .
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I think partner has good hand with 4/6 in the blacks ( Sp/Cl )... trying to force to game. I also think he is 1/2 in the reds ( Hts/Diam) . Since 3NT seems to be out of the question, the question remaining is whether you can make 11 tricks in Cl. You have nice honors in his suits. You could bid 4C, but I think that could be passed in this auction. I'd try 5C.
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3D should be a natural 2nd suit here, GF. If Opener had long, solid Hts, GF AND shortness he could make a self-splinter bid: 1H - 1NT! 3S!/4C!/4D! With NO shortness, but long Hts and GF, there is a problem since 3H ( over 1NT! ) can be passed. Some here use 3C! as the "could-be-artifical" GF bid and then rebid Hts to show the long Ht hand. ...... I suggest using 2S! as the "could-be-artifical" GF bid.... gives you a little bit more room for follow-ups.
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Partner has shown a strong 2-suiter ( 5+h/4+d ), game forcing . You have a very good hand with excellent support in partner's 2nd suit. Show your support instead of asking for a Sp-stop. A Diam slam is very possible. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Responder's rebids: 3H would be the weakest rebid... with as little as 2 card support. 4H would be a 3 card limit raise ( NOT a case of fast-arrival ). 3NT = support for neither Sooo, in MY system, I would show Diam support using the next remaining 4 rebid steps as RKC-showing: 3S! = 0 ( 3 improbable ) 4C! = 1 ( 4 impossible ) 4D! = 2 - dQ 4S! = 2 + dQ Sooo, for this hand, a 4D rebid not only conveys 4+ card ♦ support but 2 key cards w/o the ♦Q.
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This didn't work: Assess the blame
TWO4BRIDGE replied to inquiry's topic in Interesting Bridge Hands
2NT is part of the Lebensohl Convention over partner's DBL of a weak-2D. ( 2D ) - X - ( p ) - 2NT!( strongly encourages 3C ) ( p ) - 3C! - ( p ) - 3NT = slow-shows BOTH 4 card Majors; NT bid indicates ♦-stop(s) whereas: ( 2D ) - X - ( p ) - 3NT = direct-denies any 4 card Major; NT bid indicates ♦-stop(s) And if Advancer has only ONE 4 card Major: direct 2M = 0 - 6 hcp slow 3M = 7,8 hcp direct 3M-jump = 9,10 hcp direct 4M-jump = good 11+ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Now for the deal shown, West has to bite his tongue and PASS hoping that partner can make a T/O DBL. East with a 3 3 4 3 balanced 11 hcp, and no 4 card Major can't DBL either. Who says a Weak-2D open is not effective ? - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
" When NO suit agreement, 4NT = RKC for the 2C bidder's suit " : 2C - 2D 3D - expected 3H or 3S 4NT ( RKC for ♦ ) - 5C ( 0/3) next, by-passing the K-ask: 6C! ( 3rd Rnd Ctrl ask for Clubs ) - ?? .................................................6D = no cQ >> bid 6NT ................................................6NT = cQ >> bid 7NT .................................................7C = cQJ >> bid 7NT .................................................7D = doubleton ♣ >> pass 7D ( Hope partner has at least ONE Diam ) .
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Pard..RHO..You 1S....( 2H )...DBL = Neg 3D....( p )....3H! 3NT...( p )....6D = taking a chance that partner has A or K of ♥ for his 3NT call )
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Eventho you play 5 card majors, you could open 1♥ in 3rd seat... since you have Drury protection.
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A similar thread ... in Sept of last year: http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=41920&st=0 At that time I mentioned that with Ingerberman and Ron Anderson's Leb3 ( for reverses ), they consider 2S, in this unique case of a 2H reverse over a 1S response, as not only forcing but game forcing. However, Peachy gave the best reply ( IMO ) . The 2S can be either a weak hand OR GF, but 2S is "forcing" because 2H has " promised a rebid " . It means, however, that you "can't get out " in 2S because it cannot be passed. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - As to the question about " 3S ". There are 3 ways for Responder to bid 3S: 1) 1m - 1S 2H - 3Sjump = invitational 2) 1m - 1S 2H - 2NT! ( Leb ... forcing 3C! ) 3C! - 3S = sign-off, weak. That leaves: 3) 1m - 1S 2H - 2S ( either as an immediate GF or if only F1, then any new suit, etc, later is GF )
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There was a similar auction posted last month [ http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/44529-blech/ ] for a 1-minor open and a 3S WJO Here we have a 1C open: 1C - ( 3S ) - ?? Rodger Clee suggested "switching" Responder's 4H and 4om ( the other minor ) bids where here: 4D! = long ♥ and 4H! = long ♦ ( the other minor ) Is this the "Bergen Switch" convention ? Thus, it might go: 1C - ( 3S ) - 4D! 4H - ( p ) - 4S! = RKC ( yess, I know he has a ♣ void) .......................( so, if 1 key card is missing, you would stop in 6H ) 4NT ( 0/3 ) - 7NT ( counting 1s, 7h, 4d, 1c )
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Priorities in Responses to NMF
TWO4BRIDGE replied to Bbradley62's topic in Natural Bidding Discussion
Ditto...for the 1♠ response in a NMF auction: 1m - 1S, 2om - 3H ... 3H-jump = max w/4h and 3s -
6C bid ... not good : 1C - (3S) - X 4C - ( p ) - 4S! = "only forcing bid( other than RKC ) after a Neg-DBL is a cuebid" 5C - ( p ) - 5H 6H ... all pass
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Praytell, did you notice that Responder DENIED a ♣ Ctrl. Thus, regular RKC ( 4NT ) is OK; "Voidwood" not needed . ( Sorry, I thought that was obvious ).
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Modified Swedish-2NT where 1M - ?? Splinter Raises 3D! = ♣ shortness 3oM! = ♦ shortness 3NT! = oM shortness 1S - 3H! - ( DBL) p - RDBL = ♥A 3S - 4S = no ♣ Ctrl or ♥ K 4NT - 5S ( 2 + ♠Q or extra length ) 6S
