TWO4BRIDGE

Good suit = 2 of the top 3 honors ... so you may lose a Diam . Good hand = May have a Ht honor .... or maybe just 2 black Q's ... and you may lose 2 Hts. Another way to look at a "Good hand" is 7 losers. Responder's hand is 7 losers ... which adds up to just 10 tricks . Edit: and 3NT seems out of the question ( with a Ht lead ) .

In the auction you show: P - (1S) - 2H - ( P ) ?? ..2S! = transfer to 3C ..3C! = transfer to 3D ..3D! = transfer to 3H which is a better raise than: ..3H

Ron.... Quantumcat is taking about the alternative course of action of PASS! ( for T/O ) by Opener... and then DBL by Responder: 2♣ - ( p ) - 2♦! - ( 3♦ ) p ! - ( p ) - X - ( p ) ??

Getting out at the 3-level is in the same predicament as Lebensohl over Revereses ( Leb3 ) . That said, I'm still interested the transfer feature but I have no real experience with it.... yet. I did notice in Zel's Transfer method ( see link in post # 11 ) that you can get out in 2-of-the-Major, but at the expense of "right-siding" NT ( Responder can't transfer to 2NT if 2S is a sign-off ) .

In your Transfer Methods, what are the "weakness" bids for sign-offs ? For example: 1♣ - 1♥ 2♦ - ?? is 2♥ a "weakness" bid or a Transfer to ♠ ? Likewise for: 1♣ - 1♠ 2♥ - 2♠ = ?? Edit: In other words, can you get out at 2-of-Responder's Major ??

Zelandakh also espouses Transfers-Over-Reverse : http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/45457-bidding-over-reverses/page__gopid__541655

From my post #6 : 1D - 1H 2S! - 2NT! ( asks for clarification ) 3H! - 4H pass where: 3H! = 3h, no 4s, 5+d and 2S! was ( may be artificial ) GF . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Edit: I supposed Responder could make an advance cue of 4C for Hts as trump ( an obvious cue since there is no other reason to show Clubs at this point ), and it should be the Ace since Opener's bidding shows very few Cl; and at the same time the Cl-cue denies a Spade control. Again, 4H will be the final contract

I'm ready for Responder's hand.

I used to think showing "specific" 2-suiters was better. But it involves either a higher "jump-cue" ( like your system ) or 3C ( which usually shows the "2-lowest unbid" ) . Besides having to give up the natural 3C bid, another problem is partner PASSING 3C when you don't want him to -- since you have the strong 2-suiter. The conventional Michaels/Un2NT 2-suiter bids also have another failing. Often times you lose the ability to show SPADES and another. Bailey Cuebids solves this problem: In General: ( 1A ) - 2NT! = 2 lowest unbid ( this is the same Un2NT! ). ( 1A ) - 2A! = Highest and ONE of the 2 lowest unbid. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Take this deal for example: ( 1D ) - ?? Overcaller has a good hand, but can't show his Spade 2-suiter with one "regular" Michaels bid : A Q x x x x A x A 10 x x x With Bailey's: ( 1D ) - 2D! = ♠ & either ♥ or ♣ .

Using "regular" Micheals ( or similar where only ONE suit is known ) you bid the UNKNOWN to show the stronger hand: ( 1S ) - 2S! - ( 3S ) - p ( p ) - 4D! - ( p ) - ?? now partner knows you have the strong RED hand and acts accordingly.

You still have to give up something. You don't like giving up the 3C preempt: ( 1S ) - 3C But now you are giving up the Western Cuebid: ( 1S ) - 3S! ( asking for a stop for 3NT ... since you have a long running suit but no Sp-stop )

I know Meckwell uses the following as GF: 1H - 1S 2D - 2S! = artificial GF What I'm not sure about is if they also use 2S! as GF over a 2H rebid: 1H - 1S 2H - 2S! = GF ?? ...because the following auctions might be agreed to as 4s/6+minor = weak or invitational for Responder: 1H - 1S 2H - 3C/3D

Awhile back I heard in the Netherlands that bridge was "taught" in high schools ( or even in Jr High ) ..... perhaps as an elective or part of the recreational program... I'm not sure. and I'm not sure if they still do.

Bidding 6-4-6 would show a better hand than 6-6-4, so I agree with Hanoi on a 2C rebid. ( This also conserves space for strain exploration ). 1H - 1S 2C - 2D! ( F1 )* 3H - 4H _______________________________________________________________________ * This is ONE of only TWO 4th suit auctions where Opener has made a limiting bid and Responder's 4th suit is NOT a reverse; hence, 1 Rnd Forcing instead of GF . ( The other one is : 1D - 1S, 2C - 2H ) . _______________________________________________________________________ Opener jumps to 3H to invite with his stellar suit, since 2H can be passed. Responder accepts and 4H should be recognized as a sign-off now.

Over a 1H response, can use the GGG ( Gnasher's Gameforce Gadget ): 1D - 1H 2S! - 2NT! ( asks ) ?? 3C! = (3om ) = 4s, no 3h, 5+d 3D! = long Diam, no 4s, no 3h 3H! = 3h, no 4s, 5+d 3S! = 4s AND 3h, 5+d

I don't understand Justin's remark either. He must have had a bad night at the poker table.

1D - 2D! ( inverted, GF )

One important follow-up ( as proposed by the National champion who suggested using the 1♠! 4th suit GF sequence in the first place instead of the 2♠-jump): 1♣ - 1♦ 1♥ - 1♠! 2♠* - ?? If Responder now bids ANYTHING OTHER than 3♠, then the 1♠! bid was artificial! ________________________________________ * 2S = 4 4 0 5 or 4 4 1 4

Here is an interesting suggestion by straube for the sequence 1S - 1NT!, 3H - ?? from Feb, 2010: http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/37056-responding-to-jump-shift/ He uses 3S! ( by Responder ) as a relay so he can have 2-ways to make 4-level bids : 1S-1N, 3H-3S!, 3N! ( asks for more info ) - ?? .....4C-two-fit in spades ..........4H-5/5 .....4D-medium hand for hearts .....4H-weak hand for hearts 1S-1N, 3H-3S!, ?? .....4C-7/4 ( I think he meant this as 7/5 ) .....4D-6/5 .....4H-5/5 stronger ( than above 4H = 5/5 ) ..... 1S-1N, 3H- ?? .....3N-good hand, no fit .....4m-good hand, minor .....4M-good hand, major

I never mentioned the "W"-word. I guess I play a modified Walsh. Here is a delayed Diam-support auction for the original hand: North South 1C - 1D 1H - 1S! ( must be GF w/ or w/o 4♠ ) 2D* - 3D ( 5+♦ ) 3H ( cue ) - 3S ( cue ) 4C ( cue ) - 4D! ( Minorwood ) 5D! ( 2 + must be ♠ void ) - 7D ( known 10 card ♦ fit ) _____________________________________________________________________________________ * 2D = must be 4 cards: either 1 4 4 4 or 0 4 4 5 Opener would not bid 2D with only 3 cards ♦ since Responder might have only 4.

Am I the only one who will have Responder with 4/4 in the reds and GF values bid ♦ first; whereas, will bid ♥ first with less than GF values -- even with longer ♦ . The way I see this one: North South 1C - 1D 1H - 2H ( GF as per MrAce's logic: bids ♦ first with GF 4h/4+d ) 3S!( splinter ) - 4H pass

Thx, MrAce ... You and Zelandakh are made for each other as partners ... :)

JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South 1C - 1D 3S! - ??

As much as I luv splinters, what is the reasoning for opener to NOT rebid 1♥ ? Couldn't Responder have 4 cards Hts too ?

North Dealer ( opps silent )[hv=pc=n&s=skj43hjdakjt52cq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv]