TWO4BRIDGE

1♦ ( p ) ?? ........... a ) 1♥ . 1♦ (P) 1♥ (2♠) P (4♠) ?? ........... b ) 5NT = choice of small slams ( between ♦ or ♥ ) .

I've been chastised for even mentioning SPLINTERS in the B/I ... and now here CSG is advocating one with a stiff KING no less ! [ B & I players--- cover your eyes ! ] .

Andy didn't define what his 4♣-jump was called . I think it is a Roman Jump ( the suit bid and the next higher unbid )... a type of "Leaping Michaels" for 2-suiter overcalls. Another "jump" method I ran across sometime back for use over a Weak-2D is: 4D = majors 3H = ♥/♣ 3S = ♠/♣ and 3D = stop-ask

“I favor light opening bids. When you’re my age, you’re never sure they’re going to get back to you in time.” (Oswald Jacoby at 77)

ditto

I am also interested in the follow-ups to the CWNN ( Convention With No Name ) . [ For those who haven't followed this, the 4♦-double jump showed 4 cards ♥ support and 6 cards ♦ , normally with the values concetrated in those 2 suits; ergo shortness in one of the blacks. ]

As Responder, I'm worried that Opener may have a ♦-void . So, I'm thinking about a small slam if slam is warranted. However, here in a Splinter auction, Opener may take control and also decide to stop in a small slam . 1S ...... - 2D! ( 2/1 GF ) 2S/2NT ( whichever you use to show extra ♠ length ) - 4C! ( splinter ) 4NT ( Opener is ready for RKC for ♠, 1430 ) - 5NT ( 2 + void somewhere; obviously ♣) 6S - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Edit: If Responder decides to forgo the "void reply" and show 2 + ♠Q instead, then Opener will be inclined to ask for Kings ( confirming that our side has all the key cards ) : 4NT - 5S 5NT - 7D ( showing a solid source of ♦ tricks such as A K Q J x , but A K Q-7th should suffice ) 7S

3♠ ( weak jump ) . If the Vul were reversed, I venture 4♠.

Ooops ... I was so enthusiastic about the GGG, I overlooked that Opener had a 6 card ♦ suit instead of 5 and, so, I only counted 12 tricks . However, even if the Diam didn't run, there still is the Club-ruff in the short hand for the 13th trick... duhhh.

Aside from the fact that North has a 1♥ opener, now is the time for GGG by Opener to show BOTH 5+ cards ♦ and 3 cards ♥over a 1H Response. p - 1D 1H - 2S! ( Gnasher's Gameforce Gadget; Sp may be artificial ) Gnasher disavows any originality for the GGG . 2NT!(asks) - .. 3D! = long Diam; Sp was artificial .. 3C! = ( other minor ) 4 cards Sp .. 3H! = 3 cards ♥, 5+ ♦, Sp was artificial After .... - 3H! 4C ( advance cue ) - 4S! ( kickback-RKC for ♥ ) 5H ( 2 + ♥Q ) - 6H

ditto....As our inimitable KenRexford might say: " Stoppers are for losers " .

With 4-4 in the Majors this is an exception to " up-the-line " ..... advance 1♠ first . When partner makes a takeout double and if you advance with 1♥, then a 1♠ bid by partner would show a big hand with long Spades. So you can't find a 4-4 fit that way. It is up to advancer to introduce both suits. And by advancing 1♠ first, the doubler can then play in either suit at the two level. Should advancer bid 1♥ then 2♠, doubler would have to convert to Hts at the 3 level.... Edit: "This is nothing new; you will find this treatment recommended in Goren books from the 1950's."

If you pass and opener corrects to 2S ( like you think he will ), then pass - pass - ?? will 4C! now be Leaping Michaels ?

Max Hardy's book says 14 to 20, but 14 seems a little low ( I always wondered if 14 was a typo ) . What does Mike Lawrence's book on Balancing say ? Edit: I looked it up. He said the balancing or direct overcall of 2NT over a weak-2 opening ) is " natural with the approximate values of a NT opening " .

Admittedly, the 1S advance was poor . But then, after the 3D! cue, Advancer compounded the error by only bidding 3S ( afraid of going past 3NT... but then Advancer should have bid 3NT with 1/2 stop in ♦ ) .... passed out ... making 3S + 2 . [ I can see the "normal" 2S instead of 1S..... but 3S instead of 1S ? ( on A x x x x ) ] . Overcaller's hand was: K J 10 9 x A Q 10 x x A x x Any "blame" there ? ( 1D ) - X - ( p ) - 1S ( 2D ) -3D!- ( p ) - 3S ( p ) - ??

That is what went thru my mind at the time... until it struck me this morning ( driving in the car ) that it is "Last Train to Clarksville "

You are close: Assign The Blame . On other message boards I have seen: WTB ( Who To Blame .... maybe that should be Whom To Blame ) . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- -- -- -- What does LTTC mean ?

( 1D ) - X - ( p ) - 1S ( 2D ) -3D!- ( p ) - ?? your hand A x x x x x x Q x x K 10 x 1) Do you agree with the 1S advance ? 2) What do you do now after partner made a "general strength" cuebid ?

There is a 2nd "immediate" way to invite slam after a simple transfer... and that is to use the Meckwell gadget which allows Opener to get in on the decision ... since all Responder knows is that Opener will have at least 2 cards ♠. 1NT - 2H! 2S - 5C! = "showing" 0/3 key cards w/6+ ♠ suit ( as if 4NT-RKC were bid ) ?? ..Opener, w/ 3 card ♠support and "seeing" all key cards now asks for the ♠Q : 5D! - 5S ( no ♠Q ) 6S 5C! is not confused with Exclusion because that would be defined by: 1NT - 4H! ( Texas) 4S - 5C! ( Exclusion )

Isn't LHO ( West ) = 3=4=5=1 ... and RHO ( East ) = 4=4=1=4 So, the question is whether RHO's stiff ♦ is the K .. or not . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Too bad West kept the 2 high ♥ ( Q & 10 ) otherwise East could have been in on the 4th ♥ to lead a safe ♠ . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - I guess I make the anti-percentage play... and play for the drop too .

The bidding is a poster child for one of a number of BAD things that can happen when you don't make an immediate 4 card raise. Looks like a good time to use: 1H - 2S! = splinter ( somewhere ) of various strengths as put forth in recent threads: http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/51057-mini-splinters/ http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/50332-bergen-raises/page__st__20

5♠ .... You have a 6 LTC and partner doubled with at least a 7 LTC ( or lower ) ... = 24 - 13 = 11 tricks . How does a DBL ( by Advancer ) show this hand ? If it went ( 2H ) - X - ( 4H ) - ?? then a DBL by you would show the Minors...." because if Advancer has spades, he just bids them " .

So, what was the Doublers actual hand ? ( Did he just have a 4 card Ht invite ? or ? ).

I'm wondering if Advancer didn't know ( or forgot ) that with only ONE 4+ card Major he could bid a direct 2H with a WEAK hand ( 0-6 hcp ). The direct 3H would show 9-10 hcp , and the " slow 3H " route ( 2NT! then 3H after a forced 3C ) would be 7-8 hcp . We can't tell exactly now what his 3H is after he has been forced by 3D! If it were the 7-8 hcp hand, he could have jumped to 4H, except he may not have wanted to go past 3NT with only 4 cards Hts. ( He definitely should have jumped to 4H with 5 cards Hts and the 7-8 hand ) . The only other reason to bid Leb2NT! is if he wanted to drop you in 3C, but I doubt it from the length of your Clubs. I think I'll try 3S ( It still leaves 3NT in the picture -- "cloudy" as it is ).

I think you have given me a solution to a Side Issue: wyman ( post # 16 ) had asked how Responder can show a 4M/6m GF, slammish hand. You can easily show it for the following when Opener has NO 4 card Major: 2NT - 3C ( regular Stayman ) 3D! ( no 4 card M ) - 4m ( 4M/6m ) But I always wondered about the case when Opener HAS a 4 card Major: 2NT - 3C 3M - 4m ( I didn't know if this is a cuebid agreeing M or 4oM/6m; where 4oM = 4 cards other major ) But phil_20686 says he uses the following to "agree M, slammish" : 2NT - 3C ?? ..3H - 3S! = artificial, agree ♥ , slammish or ..3S - 4H! = artificial, agree ♠ , slammish That being the case will free up the 4m bid to show the 4oM/6m hand .