TWO4BRIDGE

Finally, we have a situation where the "pre-decline" is more useful than the "pre-accept" .

With one partner we play 4-suit Transfers. Right or wrong, we then decided to define the 3-level-jumps as: 1NT - 3H! = (5/5)+, Weak 1NT - 3S! = (5/5)+, GF or better 1NT - 3C! = (5/5)+, Weak 1NT - 3D! = (5/5)+, GF or better The question for this hand for us is which 3-minor-jump to use: ♠7 ♥4 ♦J98763 ♣A6543 Since the hand has too much game potential, I'd bid: 1NT - 3D! ( GF ) Now for follow-ups: Whichever minor suit Opener selects ( 4C or 4D ), Responder has 2 options: 1) Make a Minorwood reply or 2) Sign-off .... 5C or 5D Signing-off is more prudent here. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Edit ( addition ) : There is a 3rd course of action for the more pessimistic: 3) PASS partner's 4C/4D selection.

Mine is similar to Cyber's ( re: the ♥Q-ask ) but I would use modified - Baze ( as did andy_h ) where 4D! = RKCG when Stayman fids a fit : 1NT - 2C 2H - 4D! 4H ( 0/3 ) - 4S ( next step = ♥Q-ask ) ?? ..4NT = yes + ♠K ( 4NT shows Q and K-of-the-asking-suit ) .. 5C = yes + ♣K .. 5D = yes + ♦K .. 5H = no ♥Q ..5NT = yes but no outside K ( this NT shows asked-for feature only ) After: 5NT - 6C = 3rd Rnd Ctrl-ask ?? .. 6H = no ♥Q .. 7H = x x doubleton ..6NT = ♣Q ( NT shows the asked-for feature ) .. 7C = ♣QJ After: 6NT - 7H ( don't know if Club suit will run... If I only knew about ♣Q-3rd or not )

Congrats, Justin... on both the win and youngest player to reach Grand Life Master ! Also, the article had another interesting tidbit: Justin's father won with Hamman 20 years ago.

You've seen this before. Bidding 6 6 4 is weaker than 6 4 6 ... hence, the preliminary implication is that rebidding 2H may be showing a "better limited" hand . ( Of course it doesn't become clear until the 3rd Rnd of bidding ) . At first, when I only looked at the hcp, it appeared that 2S was the correct bid, but all of the 11 hcp are "working" and there are at least 3 distributional points. Also, if there is a fit, this hand is only a 6 LTC . Sooo, 2H seems to be a better rebid. However, that still doesn't mean 6S would/should be reached .

No ... to RKC . North doesn't know about 2 quick ♦ losers. This 25 hcp combined.... only makes 12 tricks because it is a "magic" fit.

As Johnnie Carson would say: " I did not know that ".

I think Codo has this one right. After the 2H Reverse and 3H Support rebid, Opener knows about Responder's 5 cards ♠ .... ergo 4 cards in the minors. When Opener goes RKC for ♥ and discovers the ♥Q missing, the ♠ suit looks more attractive as trumps because of ♥ discards on that stellar ♣ suit . ( ♦ losers are not in the "discard" picture because of Opener's shortness there ) . And Opener can make the final bid of 6S ... since it is the top dog suit. ( Of course he couldn't do that if ♠ were the 4 - 4 fit and ♥ were the unsupported 5 - 3 fit ) .

Agree . ( Opener is greater than a 12 count w/ 6h ) .

ditto I know it has been pointed out before about 6-4 hands: Bidding 6 - 4 - 6 is stronger than bidding 6 - 6 - 4 .

Not only an odd auction but an odd play at the end when East gave a ruff-N-sluff with that ♣ lead.... thereby handing declarer the otherwise "unmakable" contract .

I don't understand why Responder would make this "picture bid" ( hcp-wise ). If Opener makes sound openings, 3NT = 13-15. If Opener is one of those 10-11 hcp openers, then 3NT needs to be closer to 15-17. If Responder does not have a 4 card Major, he could conserve bidding space with an GF Inverted raise, 2D! ( say he was at worst: 3 3 4 3 ) or GF 2/1, 2C! (at worst: 3 3 3 4 ). Is Mr Ace joking ? If Responder has a weak 4d/5c ... he just passes 3NT. I agree w/mikeh : 4C is natural and forcing .

Does 6H fail because of the opening lead ( contract wrong-sided ) ? The normal Reverse bidding would go: 1C - 1S 2H - 3H ( GF ) 3S ( cue ) ... and Opener plays the hand in a ♥ slam.

Same a Justin only : 2NT - 3NT = 4/4 in the majors ( not my idea, but from the May 2006 ACBL Bulletin and "minor reversal" modification by Fred Hamilton ) .

Do you really need to use 4D and 4H as Transfers ( directly over 2D ): 1NT - 2C 2D - 3H/3S ( ostensibly Smolen showing 5M/4oM ) 3NT - 4D!/4H! ( now are delayed-Transfers showing 6M/4oM ) That way it frees-up 4D as Quant, w/4 ♦ ( posts # 22 and 23 )... directly over 2D. Likewise 4C = Quant w/ 4 ♣ ( and may have 4 ♦ as well ) giving up that dreaded Gerber.

For us, 1M - 3D! = Bergen Limit Raise

Since 3C/3D shows the 5+minor, GF, slammish ... what would 4C or 4D mean ( directly over 2D ) ? Should/could 4C/4D = Quant w/ 4 card ♣ or ♦ ( to go along with the undisclosed 4 card Major ) ?? And 4NT ( over 2D ) = Quant w/ NO 4 card minor .

I figured partner had to have "something" in ♦ ( ie no two quick losers ) for his ♥-splinter when I held the 3 top ♠ and the ♣ A.... So I just blasted to 6S ... not wanting to allow the opps a lead directing DBL .. or some such . [hv=pc=n&s=sakq96ha62d976ca9&n=s8543h7dakqjt2c64&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1sp4h(splinter)p6sppp]266|200[/hv] Well, I was right about the " no two quick losers in ♦ " .

Right now: 1NT - 2C 2D - 2S = invitational: 8-9, 5s4h or 5s5h

True. You mentioned in your previous reply ( post 10 ): What is another way to show a balanced slam try after 2D? ( below 4NT ) .

[hv=pc=n&s=sqj7hk95daq7cajt3&n=sahaq87dj965ckq92&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1np2cp2dp]266|200[/hv] EDIT: It was IMP scoring When Opener denies a 4 card Major , Responder knows they have a 4-4 minor fit ( perhaps a 5-4 ) with his 1 4 4 4 shape. Note: Responder will often have 4-4 in the minors when he next makes the 4NT Quant bid. Why ? Because if Responder had a 5+ card minor and slammish, he would have bid 3m over 2D ( part of the Baze convention over Stayman ) . However, Responder could also be 4 4 ( 3 2 ) for his Quant bid. After "sleeping on this hand ", I got to thinking that, after a 2D reply to Stayman, when Responder next makes a 4NT Quant try, that Opener should bid his 4 card minor ( or "both" ) AND show if he is min or max at the same time: pass = w/minimum ( no matter what minor holding ) 5C = max w/ 4 ♣ >>> Responder bids 6C or 6NT 5D = max w/ 4 ♦ >>> Responder bids 6D or 6NT 5NT = max w/ BOTH 4 card minors >>> Responder picks: 6C/6D or 6NT 6C = max w/ 5 ♣ for pass or correct to 6NT 6D = max w/ 5 ♦ for pass or correct to 6NT

( 6NT doesn't make ) [hv=pc=n&s=sqj7hk95daq7cajt3&n=sahaq87dj965ckq92&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1np2cp2dp]266|200[/hv] EDIT: It was IMP scoring

On the 1st one : 4D ... Ctrl cue showing support for Opener's 2nd suit ( ♣ ) .

Another advantage of 2H! = immediate negative. Then Opener would know of : no A or K or 2Q's and rebid 2NT which can be passed. However, if partner's "bust" hand were ( w/ 4 cards ♠ ): 10 x x x x x x x x x x x x ... you would have a chance for 9 tricks

p - 1D 2S! ( fit-jump by a passed hand )