TWO4BRIDGE

Thx again, Zel ! !

Luckily East opened that 20 hcp hand with 2C ... It gave the best chance to get to the ♣ slam. And if East does the RKC-ask, he doesn't know if West has a 6 card ♥ suit or just 5. So, he can't count a sure 13 ahead of time for the grand in ♣ .

The 2nd hand, we could use Zelandakh's splinter system: 1H - 3S! ( void splinter somewhere ) 3NT! ( asks ) - 4D! ( ♦ - void )

@ Zel ... Some questions: -- You seem to be showing the ♠-singleton TWICE ?? ....... a ) with the direct 3NT-jump over 1H open and ....... b ) with 2S!( jump) - 2NT! ( asks ) - 3C/3D/ and 3H! = ♠ - singleton EDIT: I see it now. 3NT! and 4m! must be "maxi-splinters" . -- Am I interpreting this correctly: ........ 1H - 3S! = void "somewhere" ........ 3NT!( asks ) - 4C/4D and 4H! = ♠ - void

I agree with a SJS, to show a GF hand, but since you have no 4 or 5 card minor, I think it would be better to use: 3C! = " may be artificial " ; and then Responder could use 3D! as the "ask" . You then could tailor Opener's replies to show, say : -- 3H! = long ♥, no real ♣ - suit, and may have 3 cards ♠ -- 3S! = real ♣ - suit AND 3 card ♠-support -- 3NT! =real ♣ - suit, but no 3 cards ♠. Here, Opener can show a GF w/ long ♥ and may have 3 cards ♠... at the 3-level ( 3H ) ! EDIT: Actually, 2NT! would better "optimize" the GF... leaving more room ( or better use ) for replies after a 3C! "ask" . And that would leave the direct 3C/3D - jumps as natural.

If you play the Neg-DBL "convention", the re-opening DBL is part of it .... practically automatic .

This hand fails Rule-of-13....so no 2C.... it adds up to " 12 " .

If I calculate that "Rule-of-13" correctly, it says open 2C : Defensive tricks: AKQ = 3 A = 1 QJ = 1/2 4-1/2 multiplied by 2 = 9 Add that to "all length cards greater than 3 in a suit " = 4 9 + 4 = 13

Looks like ~ 35% to me . Where do 12 tricks come from ? It looks like ♣ need to split 3-3 for the x-ruff to work.

A number of folks here advocate the 1NT opening ( including J-J ). Does it really end up better ? ( like reaching slam ? ) . 1NT - 2D! 2H - 3C 3NT Edit: The following is better: 1NT - 2D! 2H - 3S! ( self-splinter showing good 6 card ♥ ) ?? ... OK, this one will get you there.

Thx, Justin...( re: nix on the "weak raise"/w4 ). As a passed hand, I didn't have a mixed raise w/4 until now ( I previously rolled it into 2S ).

Anything I might say is resulting here. 2S is weak... 3S is "weaker still"... BUT the ♠ bidder is really too weak to bid ♠ again. Even 3H seems a stretch. PASS ( over 2NT ).

There are 2 ways for North to bid 3H. He chose the stronger way by going thru 4th Suit GF . ( The 3H-jump over 3S would not be a GF ( IMO ) -- why would you need 2 ways to show a GF in ♥ ? ) Anyway, I think South could just bid 5H! ( over 3H ) asking about trump quality. ( Or he could bid 5H over 4H in the given auction ).

2) [hv=pc=n&s=sakq4haqj73dkj64c&n=s87653hk9652daca9&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p]350|250[/hv] I'm afraid it may not be as "simple-ish" as you would want: South North 1H ......... - 3x ( your favorite limit raise ) 5C! ( Exclusion-RKC, excluding the ♣Ace ) ......... - 5NT ( 4th step = 2 + ♥Q [ or extra length if no ♥ Q ] ) 6D ( 3rd Rnd Ctrl-ask in ♦ [ by-passing the 6C K-ask ] guaranteeing all key cards ) ......... - 7H ( no ♦ Q but can ruff 3rd Rnd ) .

Eventho the hand fails rule-of-15, it just passes rule-of-18 ( hcp + ♠ + ♥ ) .

Call him J-J for short ( Justin-Josh ).

I took the 3S free-bid for more ... I figured partner had some stuff in Diam . I guess there is bad spade split too.

1) Support DBL 1a) then 4H ( after 4C ) 2) 5C! ( over 4S )

I'm not advocating it, but Flannery could "get you there" ( to 5D ): 2D! - 2NT! ( asks ) 3NT! - 5D where: 3NT! = max 4 5 2 2 w/honors in the minors ...except Opener is not a max.

Fit-showing-jump in competition ( Club suit with good Diam support ).

The 3S! splinter does more than show a stiff ♠ and 4 cards ♣, it ostensibly shows GF values ( because of forcing the bidding to the 4-level ) and therefore shows that the 1H response was at least 5 cards ♥. [ Also some measure of ♦ support has been shown . Partner is now in a much better position to proceed ]. Why? Because with GF values and only 4 cards ♥, Responder would have bid 2C! ( 2/1 GF ) over 1D .

I'm going with the 3♠! splinter.

On a previous Inverted Minors thread, Ken Rexford offered this: " Stoppers are for losers" . But I think he favored suppressing a 4 card Major Response in favor of creating the GF when holding 4+ in the bid minor. Thus, a 2M rebid by Opener would be natural ( for him, I think ) . The "Coaches Corner" at the Pitbulls site is in favor of Responder suppressing the 4 card Major too, but says ONLY ONE of the partners should bid the MAJOR as natural.... and they say that should be Responder's job ( I believe it is a treatment by Erik Kokish ) . Thus, Opener's 2M would NOT be a 4 card Major but just show a "stop" . [ EDIT : Personally, I think OPENER should be the one to rebid 2M as natural. This way Responder can show a fit ( actually it will be a double-fit ) at the 3-level with 3M . If the pair has to wait for Responder to first bid a 4 card Major, he most likely will have to 1st show it at the 3-level. Then Opener, with a slammish hand, is stuck for a forcing bid showing suit agreement. ] I know I haven't addressed your main concern about "strength-showing", but if you choose one, then another action( or the other two actions ) must suffer .... I think .

I'm glad I'm not the only one who has a "brainfade" now and then. 4NT = accept slam try, 1 or 4 etc.

I was thinking too that the 4♦-jump -- in going past 3NT and setting trump -- should just be keycard-ask ( given the limited space when a minor is trump ). In your method above, do you just skip Opener's two suits in the replies? 4N = 0/3 5C = 1/4 5D = 2 - ♦Q 5H = 2 + ♦Q Actually, I bet 4NT was the "2nd" key card step showing 0/3: 4H = no interest 4S = 1/4 4N = 0/3 etc.