InTime

Sorry guys! It seems I opened a whole can of worms here. Garbage Stayman to me is where you bid 2C after partner opens 1NT and pass any reply opener makes. So, if your answers to 2C is normal, then it should be able to fit in with any system. If your partnership understanding is that 2C is at least invitational, then you cannot play what I am suggesting. I am playing normal stayman and transfers and my 2C is not necessarily invitational (can be also weak). With a 5-card major, I will go via transfers. I think that is where all the confusion started. Everything you do is anyway by partnership understanding. Rest my case.

I think that 2♠ initially does not create a game force. But, I think what everybody is saying that bidding 3♥ after the 2♠ created a GF.

You are playing Garbage Stayman. That is not uncommon, but it is not standard, and you should not assume that your partner is playing it. If you play transfers, this should be standard. It cannot be invitational or GF. If invitational or GF you should use transfers. Not playing transfers, this sequence is invitational. According to me nothing to do with Garbage Stayman.

For me 1NT - 2♦ - 2♥ or 2♠ is a signoff indicating a 5-4 or 5-5 in the majors with a weak hand. Otherwise, you must transfer to your 5-card major ignoring the best possible fit. If I had 5s and 4h with invitational values, I will transfer to spades and then invite with 2NT (because 3♥ will be a GF). Opener can now still bid his 4-card heart suit on route to 3♠ or 4♠. If responder realises a double fit, he should probably go to game even with invitational values.

Whatever system you play (4s transfers or not), 1NT - 2C - 2H - 2S should indicate invitational and 4 spades, 1NT - 2C - 2H - 2NT invitational without 4 spades and 1NT - 2C - 2H - 3NT game-going values with 4 spades. Otherwise you would have bid 1NT - 3NT and get it over with. This is if you don't play 2S/2NT as a sort of conventional bid as previously discussed. This makes it simple strait forward bridge (Why play in 2NT when you have a 4-4 fit in spades?, why give opposition more information by playing around?). Therefore I strongly feel in standard bridge 2S is the correct bid.

According to me, 2D was a suit because 1D in Precision does not necessarily promise diamonds. 2S was asking for a spade stop. After the 3H (forcing), opener can now still bid 3NT with no tolerance for hearts - already denied a spade stop by bidding 3C. This leaves it to responder to decide the contract. Anyway, 3NT was the better contract.

Thanks for all the nice comments and quick replies from everybody. As first time poster I am really impressed and appreciate it all.

[hv=w=sxxhxxdq10xxcakqxx&e=sakxxhaqxxxxdjxcx]266|100|[/hv] The Bidding: West...North...East... South 1D*....Pass.....1H......1S 2C**..2D........2S......Pass 3C......Pass.....3H......Pass ? * Precision ** Can be 5-4 The question is if 3H is forcing in this sequence? West elected to pass on this hand.