InTime

[hv=pc=n&s=sat952h95dt84cqt7&w=skq743h73daj7cj98&n=sj8h84d9652cak543&e=s6hakqjt62dkq3c62&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sp2h(*)p2np3hp4hp4sp4np5hppp]399|300[/hv] This is a Tx4 match. All the players here are advanced. The only bid that was alerted during he auction was the 2H (The bidders play 2/1 and the alert for the 2H was alerted as GF) No questions were asked when the bidding finished and South leads the ♠A, his partner dropping the ♠8. Again no questions were asked. South continue a spade and declarer makes his contract of 5♥. The TD was called and leader explains his problem as follows: He was under the impression that the 4♠ was bid as support for ♠'s while it was used as Keycard for ♥'s. Therefore he lead the ♠A. If he had known that it was actually Keycard for ♥'s, he would not have lead the ♠A in the first instance. His partner explained that dropping the ♠8 was a suit preference for switching to ♣'s and was not intended for count. What should the ruling be here? Should the score be changed to 5♥-1? Is it necessary for declarer and partner to explain their bidding from the 4-level upwards if no questions are asked by the defenders? Regards Note: I corrected the West/North hands West Jxx and North AKxxx Sry about this, but I think it does not make any difference to the questions.

After 1NT(partner) - 2x (natural opps) - X(you) Which is the best to play here?: Double for take-out showing a hand that is willing to compete to at least 2NT - it may be converted for penalties by the NT opener. or Double for penalties demanding partner to pass. Apparently there are different views here which one is better. I will appreciate your view here with rationale in regard to the one or the other. Regards

Hi, The hands posted with the topics are so small on my laptop so that I cannot view them? Am I doing something wrong . . . how can I zoom into it? Regards

[hv=pc=n&s=sq754h642dkj4cq82&w=sat986hakqj87d9ca&n=sh93dqt87532ckjt5&e=skj32ht5da6c97643&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1h3ddp]399|300[/hv] Playing 2/1 in MP. The X by East just shows values. It does not promise 4 spades. What is the best way to continue the bidding to conclusion? Regards

[hv=pc=n&w=shak543djcaqjt962&e=skqt42hqj86dat3ck]266|100[/hv] North/South keeps quiet throughout the auction. Playing 2/1, how do you bid this hand to it's full conclusion? East opens 1♠, EW Vul. Regards

This is very interesting. So, what you are saying is that if a defender is unsure which card to pitch, he tables his cards and the tournament director will come and sort it out for him? Regards

What you are saying here is that the 1NT rebid is just a shape showing bid and it does not necessarily say that your hand has a stopper or not. If partner wants to know, he can still inquire via 2♠? Regards

Thanks for all the replies. Another question I want to ask . . . what does 2♦ here means after a negative double . . . does it constitutes a reverse? I have heard somewhere that you are not reversing here with 2♦after a negative double? The point is actually is 2♦ forcing or not? . . . and if 2♦ is not forcing, must you then bid 3♦ to force? Regards

[hv=pc=n&s=sq5hj97djt53cakq5&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1c1sdp]133|200[/hv] I opened 1♣ here with the intention to rebid 1NT. After the 1♠ and double, what is my best rebid now? Regards

Declarer to play with 2 cards remaining, one winner one loser. Hand on left places 2 cards exposed on the table one a winner one loser , before declarer plays. No statement of claim or concession is made by defender. Declarer calls director and asks for ruling. Are those 2 cards major penalty cards and if so can declarer direct defender to play either one if he can not follow suit to next trick? Regards

Playing Multi Landy in all positions against a strong NT. So in this instance I will bid as follows: 2D (Single suiter major) and after partner's 2H then bid 3D explaining my hand. Regards

[hv=d=e&v=n&n=sa753ha8632d54c105&w=sqthkj1054d862caj9&e=skj982hq9dkqt97c6&s=s64h7daj3ckq87432]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] Thanks for all the replies with rationale behind it. Now, take this hand for an example. The Bidding: 1S - (4C) - X - (Pass) 4D* - (Pass) - 4S - All Pass * [taking the 4C as a take-out] Must one just write this hand off as a bad experience? Regards

What is the recommended level to which a negative double should apply in general? For example: 1♠ - (4♣) - X . . . penalties or negative etc. I will appreciate any rationale with your comment. Regards

Sry . . . . ignore this comment . . . . erased it.

I will appreciate if you can explain your bidding please. It seems to me 5♦ is exclusion blackwood here and 6♥ asks for a feature in hearts? . . . not sure. Bidding a void in partner's suit seems to be very orthodox . . . where do this apply in other bidding sequences? Regards

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=skj87hk5dkqj83ca5&s=saq952haqj8763dc9]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] How to bid this hand to its full potential? Regards

I was using standard count and are still trying converting and convincing myself to UDCA. The problem I have on this one is what is the correct way to give remainder count? For example: Partner leads the suit and I am sitting with Q632, my Q taken by declarer's A. At a later stage when I have to discard from this suit do I play 6 and the 2 to indicate I have 3 left, or do I play 2 and then 3 to indicate I have started with 4 cards originally? Some bridge players say you give original count (discarding the 2). . . some say you give remainder count (discarding the 6) . . . some say after the first card played in a suit you use normal count to indicate the remainder in the same suit . . . others are seemingly just unsure. The same thing here after you have given an attitude signal. My question is what is the correct way using it? I personally think that there are a lot of people playing UDCA that will ask you what does remainder count mean? Actually a tournament director said at a stage he does not know what I am talking about . . . I will appreciate rationale comments to a confused UDCA potential user. Regards

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak842hj972dqjck9&s=sq9hak654da85ca62]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] We are playing 2/1. My question is how do you show a 3 or 4-card raise with the following bidding?: 1♠ - (Pass) - 2♥ - Pass ? How do you show a 3 or 4-card raise? The fact that you have a 3-card or a 4-card raise can be of great importance here. If you just bid 3♥, your partner will never know if you raised on 3 or 4. Regards

[hv=n=sakxhakxxdakjxxxc&s=sxxxhqtxxdqxcjxxx]133|200|[/hv] How to bid these hands in SAYC, 2/1 or Precision? Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&n=sakj9hk976d72ca74&s=s63hqdaq854cqj853]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] What is the best way to bid these hands East/West pass throughout and North opens a 15-17 NT? Regards

Sorry . . . I must rectify this . . . I actually meant bidding the suits normally with intermediate hands. That actually meant bidding spades first. Regards

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=skjt52hkq972dck43]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] We play Michaels and have decided that it is either a good or a bad hand, with intermediate hand we bid our suits normally . . . I supppose this is valid for any two-suited overcall system. However, I have seen on vugraphs that certain pairs play this as intermediate to good hands when Vul vs not . . . especially in teams. My question is:- 1. What constitutes a good, intermediate or bad hand for partnership understanding? 2. Does the Vulnerability or position like 4th position change the definition? 3. In the above hand the bidding went: (1♦) - Pass - (Pass) - 2♦ with the above hand. In what category will you put this hand according to your definition? Any rationale comments will be most welcome. Regards

If you've already made up your mind, there's not much point in seeking other opinions, is there? I can assure you that I appreciate all opinions and they are all welcome. However, I have also my own opinion in regards to certain approaches. In that I am not repudiating any opinions . . . if it works for the partnership then I have really nothing to say about it. All I was trying to say that I am not sure that a bid of 3♥ or 4♥ would have helped me going forward. Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&n=sh96542dkq6cq8642&w=s642hkd953ckjt753&e=sj873haqjt73d42c9&s=sakqt95h8dajt87ca]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] For interest here are the full hands. What is responder suppose to do with 3♥ or 4♥ as a splinter? IMO it can only create headaches and not help you at all. Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&s=sakqt95h8dajt87ca]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Playing 2/1 and following the believers of not opening 2♣ with a two-suited hand, the bidding went as follows: West. . . North . . . East . . . South Pass . . . Pass . . . .Pass . . . 1S Pass . . . 1NT . . . . 2H . . . . . ? If East would have passed, 3♦ would be an easy 100% forcing bid. However, after the 2♥ from East, is 3♦ still regarded as 100% forcing? If not, what is a 100% forcing bid? Regards