InTime

[hv=d=w&w=shkqj852dk3cakqj7&e=skq863ha9dq942c82]266|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] This hand came up at a club evening: The bidding: 2♣ - Pass - 2♠ - Pass ? Any suggestions how to continue on these horror hands? Regards

I think you should have a rule with partner: 3rd suit says and 4th suit asks. In this context, partner's 2♠ show some ♠values (can be a 4-card suit) and is a NT prompt or showing a 5-card ♥ suit with some ♠ values for NT. Reversing by partner here is also a type of GF and we can bid slowly. No need to rush things here. I would bid 3♣ here (asking) although I know partner has not any ♣ values, but we are in a GF auction and we can proceed slowly. If partner then bids 3♦, I would then bid 3♠. Of course if partner bids 3♥ after your 3♣, you have a clear 4♥ bid. If you select to bid 3♠ (showing no ♣ values and partner convert to 4♦, I will convert to 4♥. Partner can then still correct or pass. Also note that if you would have bid 3♠ over partner's 2♠, it cannot be a 4-card suit because you would have rebid 1♠ after 1♥. However, I would not have bid 3♠ after 2♠ simply because it will take up too much room for now. Regards

I will appreciate if you can extend on what you mean with a self-playing suit. Is it something like AKJ10xx, AQJ10xx, KQJ10xx etc.? Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&w=sa2hkqjt92dt53cak&e=sk7643h4dak8cq1094]266|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] What is the best way to bid these hands in a 2/1 system? Regards

My impression here is that the opponents are not highly experienced in giving explanations and that declarer wants to take advantage of the situation. It was obvious that the 7H was not 4th highest looking at the cards in his hand and that it is probably top of nothing. To lead the 7 from a suit Q87 which the opposition bid must be really awful. So, I am afraid that the declarer was not highly experienced too. Leads and discards are to my mind not absolute whatever you play. If declarer wants to base his play on that, it is his problem. I feel I cannot be forced to discard or lead this or that whatever the agreement as long as my partner interpret my carding according to agreement . . . even if it is false carding . . . I am actually fooling my partner also in doing so. For instance, when South discarded the 7, 2 of Clubs, North could see it is count, because when declarer plays the 9H, it must be obvious to him that South lead from top of nothing. If North is then asked what the 7&2 of club means, he must tell declarer that you normally plays Smith Peter when needed although he knows that is count . . . he simply cannot talk out of his hand. If I play top of nothing in NT and I can detect according to the cards in dummy and the cards being played that partner knows I lead from top of nothing, why must I then still use Smith Peters? . . . it sounds ridiculous to me. Regards

Is 1NT opened with a singleton acceptable world wide? If so, is there any requirement in regard to the singleton . . . for instance an A? Regards

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=skt872hkdq8cqj965&w=sqhaj974dkt52ca87&e=s943h86532d43ck42&s=saj65hqtdaj976ct3]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Just for interest, here are all 4 hands. Personally after reading all the replies and I appreciated it, I feel that 3♥ is the correct bid. The reason for this feeling is to pass or bid 2♥ gives North/South too much room to explore further. Your combined trump length is also a sort of protection if you should get doubled. . . but I can be proofed wrong here. Regards

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=s86532h943d43ck43]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] I really appreciate all the comments. However, exchange the major suits as above and the bidding say for instance: (1♦), 1♠, (2♥), ? Now I suppose bidding 4♠ here will be in order? Regards

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=s943h86532d43ck43]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] I was sitting East with this hand and the bidding goes: (1♦), 1♥, (1♠), ? What is the best strategy here? 1. Pass and await developments? 2. Bid 2♥, 3♥ or 4♥? I selected to bid 4♥ and now South converted to 4♠ and the bidding is passed around to you. Now what? . . . Pass or bid 5♥? I passed and 4♠ was made. To bid 5♥ now you can go for a million. The reason for asking the question is that where they did not elect to bid at all or not bid 4♥ say 2♥ or 3♥ the opposition ended up in 3♠ making 4♠. Is this a lesson in not bidding to the level of the combined trump length or is it a once off to be written off? Am I overlooking something here? Regards

Partner is acting the same as if 2♠ was bid in front of him . . . although at a later stage. So, 2♥, (2♠), 2NT = asking for the minor should be the same as: 2♥, (Pass), Pass, (2♠) Pass, (Pass), 2NT = asking for the minor Partner want to push the opps to the 3-level . . . wants to see if 3m or 3M is the best to do so . . . 2NT is definitely not to play. If partner would have bid 2NT with the intention to play and make it, he should have rather doubled for a better score. Regards

Our partners in a Tx4 game were playing in 3NT. In Dummy was ♦AKQJxx and the defender on the right held ♦10xxx. No other entry to Dummy was available and 6 diamond tricks were needed to make the contract. She called for the A, K, Q and then says "another diamond". The Defender on the right immediately played the 10♦ before dummy has played and called the TD claiming that declarer was actually asking for a small diamond. It was ruled that dummy must play a small diamond . . . the contract going down. Is this ruling correct? Can Dummy not verify which diamond declarer is actually asking for before play proceeds? Regards

I really appreciate all the valuable replies . . . it was actually very informative. To me personally, when something like this happens, there are a lot of thumbling and scrambling . . . to such an extent that unfortunately the TD must come to a decision and make a ruling. The motto is . . . try to avoid it next time . . . there will always be a controversy on what exactly happened . . . take it as a bad experience . . . and forget it . . . It was just unfortunate . . . Again . . . Thank you all . . . I was really overwelmed by all the responses. Regards

Is it just me or do the two bolded parts contradict each other? It may sound like it . . . but it happened very fast . . . while I was playing the card I immediately saw that it is the wrong card and before it sorta landed on the table I replaced it with the Q♠. Declarer has not called for the 10♠ out of dummy . . . so both cards were exposed after each other. I asked my partner what he did saw and his explanation was that if the x♠ and the Q was sorta simultaniously . . . if he had to put a time limit on it . . . a second or less out of each other. I did not asked declarer or my partner to name the small ♠ to make sure that they have actually seen the card. I do not want to make excuses . . . but at that moment I did not feel it was bridge. Regards

[hv=n=skxhdc&w=s10hdxc&e=shdcxx&s=sqxhdc]399|300|[/hv] I was sitting South and we were defending 3NT. My partner North switch to a x ♠, East discarded, and the Q6 stick to each other and the 6♠ sort of landed first. In one movement I retracted the 6♠ and replaced the 6 with the Q. The tournament Director was called and they claimed that the 6♠ was played first and therefore they claimed 3NT. The result of this was -12 IMPS against us because 3NT cannot be made and our partners at the other table went down 1. Is this ruling correct seeing that it is the last 2 cards to be played? Regards

[hv=d=s&n=sakjxxxhqxdxxcxxx&s=sqxxxhkxxxdakxxxc]133|200|[/hv] The bidding went: South...West...North...East 1D.........Pass....1S........2C ? What is the best bid forward for South? 3S or 4S? 3C = Good Raise in Spades? or the most important answer will be the next question . . . 4C = Normal splinter or will it show specifically a void in this circumstances? or will 3C . . . . then 4C shows the void? Regards

Me and my partner playes that when we are in a forcing situation . . . then 4m is Keycard. In this instance 3♥ was a splinter because 2♥ is 100% forcing. With the splinter, you must have some club support, otherwise there is something serious wrong here. Therefore, implicitely you have raised clubs already . . . therefore 4♣ must be keycard. You are in a GF auction. If partner wanted to set ♠'s as trumps, he would have bid 3♠, knowing that you cannot pass because you are in a GF auction already. If you have bid a suit and partner has bid a minor and your suit has not been supported earlier in the auction and you are in a forcing situation (bidding strongly), then 4m is keycard. Hope this helps a little bit. Regards

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=saqj10hkj2d3c107542&s=s8h1097daj1097cak83]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] Here are both hands. Imo I would have opened 1C on the North hand with 2 QT and 5-4 distribution and a sound rebid of 1S. In this instance, by not doing that, partner had an awkward time on how to continue the bidding. Maybe it is better to write this one off. Anyway, thanks for your comments. Regards

Normally, 4th suit asks and is GF if partner is not a passed hand. We also play that if responder changes suit, it is 100% forcing . . . however I am unsure in both instances when partner is a passed hand. So, I am unsure what will be the best understanding between partnerships in this situation. Therefore the reason for the question.

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=s8ht97dajt97cak83]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] The Bidding went: West...North...East...South Pass....Pass....Pass...1D Pass....1S.......Pass...2C Pass....2H.......Pass...? The question is: Will you bid on or regard this hand as a misfit and pass? If you decide to bid on, what will be your next bid? I will appreciate if you add rationale to your answer if possible. Regards

What is the best way to handle 1minor - (X) - ? Regards

What will a repeated double mean in the following sequence: (1♥) - Dble - (Pass) - 1♠ (2♥) - Dble? or (1♣) - Dble - (Pass) - 1♠ (2♣) - Dble? etc. Responder can have 0-8 or 9 bad pts and maybe only 3 spades with a bad hand Partner did not: 1. Bid 2♠ from 12+ hcp . . . just competing 2. Any number of NT's 3. Cue-bid showing a very strong raise 4. Bid his own suit So the question is . . . what will the double mean? Regards

Is a reverse after partner has passed 100% forcing? For example: 1♣, (1♥), Pass, (Pass) 2♠, (Pass), ? Is this 100% forcing for partner? or 1♦, (1♠), Pass, (Pass) 2♥, (Pass), ? Same question or 1♣, (Pass), Pass, (1♠), 2♥, (Pass), ? Same question If not . . . with what kind of values should partner show a little bit of life? Regards

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sxxhjxdakjxxcaxxx&s=shakqxxxxdqxxxcxx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] I appreciate all the replies. Here are both hands. What do you recommend is the best auction? Is North's Double correct? or should North makes a forcing pass? What is the best auction to get to slam? Regards

[hv=s=shakqxxxxdqxxxcxx]133|100|[/hv] This hand came up: The Bidding: South. . . West . . . North . . . East 1H . . . . . 2C . . . . . 2D . . . . . 2S 4H . . . . . 4S . . . . . Dble . . . . Pass ? The 2D bid is forcing. Now what action should South take? Pass or anything else? Any suggestions for a different auction? Rationale with your comments will be appreciated. Regards

Is it compulsory when you make a skip bid that you should say stop or use the Stop Card? If you don't do it, is the opps allowed to take advantage of it? Regards