InTime

1. If a pair is playing a weird system with a lot of possible misunderstandings in a tournament (not necessarily a BBO tourney), can you ask the pair not to alert any of their bids. Is this allowable or not? 2. Can the Tournament Director ruled during the tournament that the pair should stop playing their system because of this and revert to a type of standard system? 3. What should be the ruling if this pair bundeled their opponents out of a contract because of this which more or less the whole room is in? Sorry if I am at the wrong Forum. If so, let me know where to place it. Regards

After 2M - Dble - 2NT? or; 2♥ - 2♠ - 2NT? Do you use 2NT as natural or a conventional asking bid? Regards

I really liked your treatment. How would you handle a bid of 2 in the suit? 5+ card without a minor? or 6-card? what kind of strength? Regards

Topic removed by myself - not relevant. Regards

Agree with the above. I will appreciate that when you define your system "Natural Sistem 4° Major" add to it if you are playing Weak or Strong NT. Eg. "Natural Sistem 4° Major, Weak NT". Sometimes it makes a difference in the replies - not here. Regards

I think you should add one more last rule: "If you have considered all the above and are still unsure, considered it to be forcing or not forcing (depending on your partnership agreement)" Regards

100% forcing. Look at the auction. The 1♦ opener's partner gave a negative double (showing some life). The 2♣ overcaller's partner did not give a cue-bid raise to 3♣ - so his raise must be limited. Obviously, the 5♣ is a sacrifice. If partner would wanted to sacrifice, he would first bid 3♥ and then 4♥ if needed. 4♥ must be a strong bid. With his pass he is looking towards his partner for help. He has done his work. Partner must now act. Regards

I agree with this treatment. This is also where you have a long minor, are invitational or better, don't see your way to 5 of your minor yet, are short in the opponent's suit, not sure if partner can withstand the onslaught of the suit (because of your shortness) from both sides of the table to establish the necessary tricks and therefore probably need an extra stopper from partner. If partner denies an extra stop and you revert to your minor, partner looking at a maximum (or quick tricks) with excellent values in your minor, can probably shoot to 3NT himself. However, I am unsure of the “super-accept” if it will propel the auction to the 4-level without good values in my suit. Partner can probably make his next move after I have revealed my intentions. If you play System On after a NT overcall from partner, this bid is free for the above treatment. Note that you can also transfer to your minor, but then the decision is with you. On the lighter mode, why take the blame if you can transfer it to your partner? :) This treatment is really useful where partner overcalled 1NT in the pass-out or 4th seat where a stopper is not required. Regards

1♦ - 1♠ 2♣ - 3♥ 4♥ Well, 2♥ will be 4th suit forcing to game. Thus, 3♥ will be nothing other than 5-5 in the majors invitational. Regards

I find this sequence interesting. Will appreciate if you can clarify the bids marked with a ?: 1C - 2C 2H - 2NT? 3S - 4D 4H? - 4NT 5C? - 5H? 5S? - 5NT* (choice of slams)? 6C The other bids not marked I think I know what it means, but can also be wrong. . . . . Regards

Sorry - this was actually a teams game (IMPS) and not MP. I appreciate the input. The reason why I put it on the forum is to try and get the best possible way to proceed forward with the bidding. Any pair with bad bidding can reach 6♣ on this layout and then clapping themselves on the shoulder afterwards. In my part of the world, opening 1NT with the East hand with a singleton is alertable. Opening 1♣, getting a reply of 1♦ and then 1♥ indicating an unbalanced hand and is highly encouraging. Responder should not pass easily (maybe with 5-6 miserable pts and he cannot even give preference). What one should take into account is that West promises only 12+ pts with his 2♣ bid. So, change the hand slightly and give West 13 pts (Attached). [hv=d=n&v=n&n=st32h984dq743cq103&w=sq4hk52da96ckj652&e=saj98haqjtdjca987&s=sk765h763dk10852c4]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Because East has a singleton diamond, the probability is high that the trumps may brake badly. Now you are hopping around with diamonds ending in a KeyCard ask of 4NT getting an answer of 5♥ :huh: What now? Do you still feel comfortable to bid 6♣ or even 5NT? I don't know :rolleyes: Rationale of why you are taking a certain actions and direction (maybe partnership understanding) with the bidding will be most welcome. Regards

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=st32h9843dq743c63&w=sq4hk52da96ckqj52&e=saj98haqjtdjca987&s=sk765h76dk10852ct4]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] North....East....South.....West Pass.....1♣........Pass.....2♣(Inverted minor) Pass.......? What is the best way for the bidding to proceed towards 6♣? System: 2/1 Note:- We also use 4♣ as KeyCard if you want to use it.

You must agree with your partner that when a double of your NT is not for penalties, you play System On. So, 2♣ = Stayman, 2♦ = transfer etc. In fact, you ignore the double and bid as if nothing happened. Then bidding the hand will be no problem. You will transfer to hearts and then bid your diamonds. Regards

Of course I would alert. I would Alert the partnership agreement. If that happened to be "6-10 6-card suit" then opponents are entitled to exactly the same information as my partner. If I fool oppo by opening very weak, I am also fooling my partner, so no real harm is done. ...... but if my partnership agreement is to open very light, then I would alert that too I do not really understand what the fuss is all about. Say for instance the definition is like you said 6-card suit 6-10 pts. With a 6-3-3-2 type of hand with 6 pts no problem. Now, say for instance my distribution is 6-0-4-3 and I have 5 pts. According to the specs I cannot open with this extra distribution because I do not have 6 pts? Again, say my distribution is 6-0-2-5 with 4 pts, again I cannot open? And, what about 6-0-6-1 with 3 pts, again I cannot open because of 6 pts? This really does not make sense to me. IMO, what the definition implies is that it is not an opening hand and the point count is a general description of your strength - not an absolute. For instance, with a 6-5 distribution, a good 10 pts in the two suits, I will probably considering to open the bidding normally. Now I can't, because I have 10 pts and not 11? The general consideration should be how you feel about your hand - not absolute point count. If this understanding becomes a problem for the defenders, then it is maybe better to state a 0-10 count if that will help the defenders. Regards

According to our partnership understanding 3♥ is forcing. IMO, partners 3♠ rebid does not have to be 4 spades and is a NT probe. Partner is forced to bid and this is the best bid to make without tolerance for hearts. To bid 4♣ is ruling out 3NT. Regards

:unsure: Well. . . I am playing Walsh with my partners where we will respond 1M rather than 1♦ (minors are for children) with a 5-card diamond + 4-card major unless having a reverse type of hand. So I will respond 1♥ (showing 4 hearts & 5+ clubs), leaving the consequent bidding open. If partner happens to have an opening hand with 4-hearts and 5-diamonds and raise me to 4♥, I will not feel that uncomfortable with a 4-3 fit (probably no tolerance for clubs anyway). With a combine 28+ pts we should be in game somewhere. I feel that 1♥ is just as wrong as all the other bids, but leaves me more room and is less of a lie :rolleyes: However, if we do play bidding-up-the-line, I will not respond 1♥. Being an over bidder rather than an under bidder, I will then bid 3♣. Regards

I agree. Partner cannot act. Therefore the opposition has probably at least a 9-card spade fit between them. I think it is better to pass. Regards

Playing 4-card majors partner bids 2♥ after your negative double. So, partner must have 5-spades. Having 4-4 in the majors, partner would have opened with 1♥ not 1♠. So, I will bid 4♠ without even thinking about it. With my singleton diamond and distribution and first round controls, I am even better than a negative double. Regards

North.....East.....South......West 1C.........1S.......Pass........Pass Dble.......Pass....Pass........2H Pass.......Pass....3D? The question is:- Is 3D 100% forcing?

Thanks Roland for your reply. My 1♠ overcall was more directed towards a good lead from partner should we defend rather than to play. Taking out the fact that he did bid right or wrong in this instance, his comments to me are still constructive for future considerations being an overcaller. Personally, I would have passed with his hand. I really appreciate positive and constructive replies B) Regards

Here are the full hands: [hv=d=w&v=b&n=sq97hakq86dkj4c94&w=shjt4dt9732caqt32&e=sak52h9753da85ck7&s=sjt8643h2dq6cj865]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] The bidding went: West.....North....East.....South Pass......1H........1S.......Pass 2D.........Pass.....2H.......Pass 3C.........Pass.....3D......All Pass Down -2 (♥AKQ8 and the 4th ♥ ruffed by the ♦Q + ♦KJ) I was playing with a real Expert sitting West for the 2nd time and his comment was that I should pass and not bid on. His comment was that you should consider what your partner did not bid before you decide on your next move. Here are his comments: 1. Partner is a passed hand. 2. Partner did not open 2D (weak), therefore he cannot have 6 diamonds. 3. Partner did not support your spades via 2S or a cue-bid raise of 2H. 4. Partner did not bid any number of NT's. With your 4 hearts and South's pass, partner is probably sitting with 2-3 hearts which is not good. 5. Giving the above, partner must have clubs and diamonds. So, if you do not have tolerance for diamonds, you should bid clubs. So, giving the above reasoning, you should pass with this hand. I think the above input is very valuable for one's thinking at the bridge table. I hope that the above is constructive input. Regards

I agree with this. If you Google "Ingberman in Bridge" you will see that the 4th suit was not included in the original definition.

[hv=d=w&v=b&s=sak52h9753da85ck7]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] West.....North....East.....South Pass......1H........1S.......Pass 2D.........Pass......? Holding the above hand, will you bid on as East or pass? Note:- Sorry, the previous poll's question was phrased incorrectly. Any comments on the rationale of your move will be appreciated. Regards

Thanks for the replies so far. However, I think I have phrased my question incorrectly. Of course the 2D is not forcing. The question should have been asked:-Would you bid on given the above hand or would you pass? Sorry for the inconvenience. I am going to open a new Poll. Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&s=sak52h9753da85ck7]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Playing 2/1 (not actually relevant here). Holding as East the above hand, the bidding:- West.....North.....East.......South Pass......1H.........1S.........Pass 2D.........Pass.......? Will you regard the 2D as forcing or not? Reasoning if possible will also be appreciated. Regards