InTime

If you can provide me your email adress via a PM, I will attach a document describing the system. Do not know how to do it otherwise. Regards

The 3NT rebid is a very space consuming bid. It should therefore be reserved to show a specific hand whatever you and you partner should agree on. After this bid, it is up to responder to place the final contract. What I have seen Richie Reisig training the juniors on BBO is that: 1m/1M - 1Any 3NT is describing a solid 6-card suit (minor or major) 18-19 pts. Regards

What is the panel's feeling by playing System On after a take-out Double? For instance 1NT still forcing, 1M - Dble - 2M still constructive etc. If you feel uncomfortable using the above, you can just pass and come in later. The Re-Double you can define to have a specific meaning whatever you prefer (example Rosenkranz after a major suit opening etc.) Or, Is it preferable to design a new system of responses after a take-out double? I feel more comfortable to play System On after a take-out double because there are no impact on your responses. In other words just ignore the take-out double. In this instance there is probably less a chance of a misunderstanding afterwards. The reason I am asking is because I have seen some world class players playing on BBO and running sometimes into difficulties not playing System On after a take-out double. I will appreciate the feeling of the panel about this statement. Also reasoning playing a certain way will also be appreciated. Regards

[hv=d=w&v=b&n=sa75h985da74cakj4&w=sqj962hkqj762dqc2&e=sk843hadj1052cq875&s=s10h1043dk9863c10963]399|300|Scoring: IMP Teams East/West playing strong NT, 5-card majors[/hv] Thanks for all the comments on this one. It was really appreciated. For interest sake the bidding went as follows: At Table 1: West...North...East...South Pass....1NT.....Pass...2♦* 3♥**....Pass....Pass...Pass * Weak ** I think the problem started here with the 3♥ bid. It took East out of the bidding. West should have Dble here, East would probably bid 2 or 3♠ whereby East/West can reach 4♠. The contract went down in 3♥ when North leads ♠A and then a spade ruff. At Table 2: Also a Pass, North/South plays Precision and East/West reached 4♠. Unfortunately I could not obtain the bidding sequence because I was not involved in the competition. It would have been interested if West opened 1♥ and North bids 1NT. East would probably Pass and South also if he cannot sign off in 2♦. The question now is - will West now bid 2♠ Vulnerable?. This is now a Sherlock Holmes case - for those supporting opening 1♥. Regards

Is this a known method in a standard system or is it by partnership agreement? I assumed that deep is playing a standard 4-card major with a weak NT. Does this replaces Check Back? Regards

Assuming that you play 4-card major with a weak NT. The question is what can partner have for his bidding?: 1. It seems a 18-19 count playing 1NT for 15-17. 2. With a balanced hand, partner would have opened 1M or 1m without a 4-card major. 3. With an unbalanced hand with 5-clubs and a 4-card major, partner would have opened 1♣ and then reverse with 2M. 4. With a 4-4-1-4, 1♣ is the correct opening bid. 5. So, his hand type is either (2) or (4) given that he opened and rebid correctly. It seems in your comment that you are playing Check Back Stayman. IMO 3♣ Check Back is in order here. If partner denies a 4-card major, he must have at least 4-clubs and therefore I will then proceed towards 6♣. Note: I agree responding 1♠ with your hand and also even with a 5/6-card minor. Minors are for children! Only if you can reverse, you can bid your 5/6-card minor. With a 4-card minor, always respond 1M even with a strong hand. It really makes the bidding afterwards a lot easier. For example, to drive on to 6♣ is a lot more difficult after bidding 1♦ instead of 1♠. Also, to find a 4-4 fit in a major as soon as possible is more important than showing a minor. I do not agree with a 3♠ bid here. It advertises 5-diamonds and 4-spades, probably reversing values, partner can now drive on towards 6♦ having hand type 2 with a 4-3 fit. I hope the above helps a little. Regards

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=sqj962hkqj762dqc2]133|100|Scoring: IMP Teams[/hv] The questions are: 1. Do you as Opener open on this hand or pass planning to come in later? 2. Do you blame South if he does not open? I would also appreciate if you will comment why you would have taken a certain action.

I agree with this explanation. In fact, it is discussed in the book "Modern Constructive Bidding by Marshall Miles" on page 204. I can scan and forward you this page if you want by forwarding me your email via your message in this forum. Regards

I will bid 2NT Lebensohl here. If partner bids 3♣, I will bid 3NT carrying the message over. If partner should break the 3♣ transfer, I would start thinking about 6 whatever ;) Regards

does anyone agree 4h bid from responder ? Qxxx AJx Qxxx xx, this is close to 9 loser hand, wasted DQ. No. I do not agree with this cue. Responder can just as well throw the Q♦ out of the window leaving him with 7 pts. IMO the 4NT RKCB after the 4♥ cue is then defendable. Regards

Bid 4♦. Because of the singleton ace, this is an imperfect splinter bid. Nevertheless, it is the most descriptive bid for the following reasons: 1. It describes to partner an unbalanced hand where 4♠ will indicate a balanced hand. 2. With duplication in diamonds, partner will probably not make another move. So, if partner signs off in 4♠, I will not proceed with RCKB. 3. In fact, with your 4♦ splinter with the ♦A, your hand is of "less" value. Your ♦A should be in one of your other suits. So, your RCKB is a self destructing move. 4. By bidding 4♠, responder can make another move without realising the duplication in diamonds. Note: In "Better Rebidding with Bergen" by Marty Bergen, a similar type of hand is discussed on page 36 no. 13. Regards

On this bidding I would assume partner is asking me if I have the K♦. If not, bid 7♥, otherwise 7NT. In fact, even with the Q♦ I will bid 7NT. I will assume partner is asking if I do have a feature in Diamonds. To my mind there cannot be any other logical explanation for his bid. Regards

2♠ will be forcing. You are not strong enough to force to the 3-level. A negative double followed by 2♠ (if possible) - not forcing will describe your hand. Regards

To me 1♥ was forcing. When responder changes suit, it is 100% forcing. Otherwise, responder must jump all over the place to get opener going. Regards

Thanks. Appreciate. I think this covers the Basic System I am looking for. Yes, I am Alien - from Africa :) Regards :)

[hv=d=n&v=e&w=saqj9652hk97dckj7&e=sk10hq54daj73caq85]266|100|N.....E.....S.....W 3D..3NT..Pass..?[/hv] How do you bid this hand sitting East / West? Is Stayman and Transfers still applicable here?

Sorry - I had the hands wrong - no comment - cannot delete my previous comments. Regards

2S Partner is a passed hand, have probably values in clubs which is duplication.

My attempt was not to put a standard here. I was just trying to explain why certain people probably regards 2♠ as forcing. At the end it is all about partnership agreement. I dont think there is a general standard.

Where can one locate an English version of this system on the Internet? If have seen it a lot on BBO, but could not locate an English version of it. I will appreciate if someone can let me know please. Regards

I think the idea is that both majors are treated equal and that the contract will end at maximum 3M without enough values for game. For example: 1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 3♥ - Pass / 3NT or 4♥ 1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 2♠(forcing) - 2NT / 3♠ / 3NT / 4♠ The reason that 2♠ is considered as forcing is that responder can sit with slam values, is uncertain in what direction he should move and want to hear from partner if he is max/min and does his hand contain 4 spades. It does give him breathing space to consider his next move as long as he knows 2♠ will not be passed. The contract will end at max 3♠ without enough values for game. The same as with ♥'s. Without the above understanding, responder must probably blast into 4NT uncomfortably. Therefore I feel strongly that 2♠ is the better bid to make. Even if the stayman sequence guarentees a 4-card major. With game going values by responder the bidding will be 1NT - 2♣ - 2♥ - 3NT. Responder is sitting with 4 cards in the other major otherwise it did not make sense to have moved via Stayman. 1NT - 2♣ - 2M - 3m In this instance 3m is NATURAL and forcing and also indicates the other major. Responder is sitting with a 6-4 or 5-4 in a minor/major with slam values and would have started off with 1NT - 3m (slam interest in the minor) not having a 4-card major. Having a 4-card major, he decided to go via stayman first. This bid caters nicely for these types of hands which is sometimes difficult to bid. I hope my interpretation makes sense. Also, I am new to this forum and don't know what the word 'Exotic' exactly means in bridge terms. It sounds like meaning 'over elaborating'? I will appreciate if you can inform me if possible. Regards

I think you should consider the following agreements in your partnership. 1. If the opposition has bid a suit and has found a fit a double is not for penalties. 2. If 3 suits has been bid, a double from partner indicates 4 of the unbid suit. Give it a go and see if your partnership bidding improves. Back to the bidding: The 2C does not necessarily deny 4 spades. If partner would have doubled 3H, it is not towards penalties. A double by partner would have indicated 4 spades. By bidding 4D, partner is in effect denying 4 spades and tolerance for your clubs. Now from this, you can consider your next move. Hope this helps Regards

:) Thanks. This sums it up nicely. I fully agree with this. Just keep your stayman sequences simple and strait forward. I must just add: If responder has slam going values and the other major (in this case 4 spades), he simply bids his best minor on the 3 level. This is 100% forcing and indicates the other major. In this way nothing can be missed. Again, that is now if your system allows for it. It seems there is a sort of "Standard" for each country in the world. It just amazes me how much can be written about this topic.

For me 1NT - 2♦ - 2♥ or 2♠ is a signoff indicating a 5-4 or 5-5 in the majors with a weak hand. Otherwise, you must transfer to your 5-card major ignoring the best possible fit. If I had 5s and 4h with invitational values, I will transfer to spades and then invite with 2NT (because 3♥ will be a GF). Opener can now still bid his 4-card heart suit on route to 3♠ or 4♠. If responder realises a double fit, he should probably go to game even with invitational values. I only now see that I made a typing error and that is also probably where all the confusion started. What I meant was 1NT - 2♣ - 2♦ - 2♥ or 2♠ will be a signoff in my system. I left out the 2♣ If you play 2♣ as at least invitational, you cannot use the above. Because of this my previous msg does not made sense and therefore all the questions. Regards