InTime

Apologies All . . . I think my wording is incorrect and should maybe be the following: Switching 2nd highest in a new suit through declarer. Is there any rationale in doing so?

Is there any article on leading 2nd highest through declarer. What is the advantages in doing so? Regards

When one create a Tx4 it is usually two matches of say 12 boards. It will be very nice when one create a Tx4 that one can enter the IMP score to each team of the previous 12 boards to get a total score at the end.

Does this rule only apply for 1st or 2nd position?

Thanks all for your valuable contributions. But I need to maybe re-phrase the question not particularly focusing on this hand combination. Taking a different South hands being invitational, game forcing or even slam interest, do you ignore the possible 4-4 card spade fit and immediately show your 4-card heart support with your methods available? Further, is it then better being in slam that a 5-4 fit is more desirable than a 4-4 fit? Regards

Dlr:W Vul:Both North opens 1♥ The question is do South show his 4-card support immediately with Bergen or any other method you have or bid 1♠? If you bid 1♠ then you will not be able to persuade partner of your 4-card support and if you show your 4-card support immediately you will loose your 4-4 fit in spades. Which is the more desirable way to go? I will appreciate any comments with rationale. Regards [hv=pc=n&s=sqt95hat96dtcqj74&w=s764h8dqj753ck986&n=sak32hkq742da64c3&e=sj8hj53dk982cat52]399|300[/hv]

[hv=pc=n&s=sqh8dkj8532ct8642&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp1np2hp2sp3h]133|200|Playing standard 2/1[/hv] Playing Standard 2/1 is there a method to show both minors weak? Regards

I think that the person asking is looking for a simple method having both majors. Fancy footwork is an agreement with your partner and there is nothing wrong with it. In the old days I have learned the following: 1NT - 2♣; 2♦ - 3♦ = both majors at least 5-5. This was sorta the standard even if you do not play transfers. If you want to get to 4M one can use Transfers, Smolen etc. and that is fine. However, if you want to make a further move with slam interest, these systems can create a problem for responder because he may have to set the suit providing him no space to advance with slam interest. With the above you stay low and also provide the space for responder to advance further if he wants to after opener set the suit. If you play 1NT - 2♥; 2♠ - 3♥ as at least 5-5 GF then you must have incorporated Smolen into your system otherwise it can be 5-4. Also note that I am not playing this with my expert partner (we use the 3♦ bid for other methods). However, if you want to make it simple without much discussion and do have 3♦ available, this may be one of the simple ones. Regards

Because the opps start pre-empting inbetween your auction.

If one uses 4NT RKC for the majors,1430 normally does not create a problem. However, it may create a problem for the minors should the suit be clubs. Playing Minorwood/Kickback 1430 is also fine, but again one may be forced to use 4NT RKC for the minors at certain stages. The question is, if you use 4NT RKC for the minors, is 0314 not better? This topic may have been discussed in the past, but I could not locate it. Regards

I do not understand what you are trying to say here. Will appreciate if you can extend on it.

Here is the POLL: http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/67581-pass-or-bid-5h/ In this it seems that the AC was correct and that the contract should have been rolled back to 4♠. Thanks for your participation in this. I do appreciate. Regards

Thanks for all those that took part in the POLL. Whatever your action inbetween, it is rather a question what do you do if the opps reach 4♠ which looks like a certainty. The reason for this POLL is the following: http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/67567-hesitation/ In this regard the AC was correct to roll back to 4♠. This is what I was after. Regards

[hv=pc=n&w=s854ha972dat8c876&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=2hd3h4spp]133|200|Tx4: Weak 2H opening: NS Vul: EW None[/hv]

It was agreed at the table that the STOP was announced and that the hesitation was longer than necessary.

Yes, there were a few, but he did not confirm with them if they opened 1♥ or 2♥. I think the few that passed actually opened 1♥ after it may result in West not knowing East has 6 hearts and East not knowing his partner has 4 hearts.

[hv=pc=n&s=sak93hk54dj976ca4&w=s854ha972dat8c876&n=sqt762hd432ckjt53&e=sjhqjt863dkq5cq92&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=2hd3h4spp5h5s]399|300|[/hv] In a Tx4 game there was a hesitation by East before passing. The 2♥ was announced as weak. At the end of the game the result was 5♠-1. The TD was called to the table and he ruled that West should have passed taking into account his number of losers and therefore the score should be changed to 4♠ making. West appealed. He said given the vulnerability he would have bid 5♥ anyway whatever his partner's actions. The appeal committee ruled: Given the fact that there was a hesitation and West has a pass as an option, West should pass and therefore 4♠ should stand. Surely a pass is always an option in every given situation and a hesitation by partner cannot bar you from bidding your hand? With a 10 card fit Non vs Vul any reasonable player will bid 5♥. Regards

Here are the full hands: [hv=pc=n&s=st87hj63dkq954cj9&w=s9ht7djt32cqt8742&n=sakj62hakq954d6c3&e=sq543h82da87cak65]399|300[/hv] Although one can discuss the bidding, it is not what I am after. It is the question of the 4♣ bid and what to expect from a similar bid in the future. My feeling it is actually pre-empting the bidding and makes it very awkward for partner to continue especially with this kind of huge 2-suiter. So, 4♣ to me should be first round control (void). Responder should rather keep the bidding as low as possible in order for partner to express his hand. To my mind bidding will not stop after responder's first reply of say 3♦. On this hand I jumped to 6♥ going down 2. Regards

Event:Teams Vul: All Dealer: East Assume 2/1 [hv=pc=n&n=sakj62hakq954d6c3]133|100[/hv] Sitting North here and East opens the bidding: (1♣) - pass - (2♣ weak) - 3♣* (pass) - 4♣? * your agreement is that 3♣ is asking for a stopper or is 2 places to play. The question here is what can you expect from partner's 4♣ bid? Another example will be (2♦ Weak) - 3♦ - (pass) - 4♦? etc. Some rationale with your answer will be appreciated . . . also how will you then proceed. Regards

[hv=pc=n&e=s82hqjt965dak98c3]133|100[/hv] Dealer: East Vul: EW Event: Teams Assume System 2/1 Looking at your hand you decide the hand is too strong for a 2♥ opening and opens 1♥. Partner responds 1♠. The question is what is your rebid with this weak hand 2♥ or 2♦? I will appreciate some rationale why the one or the other. Regards

Thanks for all the replies. I really appreciated it. From all this I decided that I am going to agree the following with my partner: 2S = invitational+ and also a stopper ask. Partner will bid 2/3NT with an outright stopper and 3D or anything else will deny an outright stopper. However, he still may have Jx or Qx and therefore 3S will then ask to bid 3NT with this type of holding. With a GF hand, we will start with 2S and after partner's response any other cue will show a GF hand. 3S = Splinter GF 4S = Exclusion Keycard This maybe not the best, but I think I will be comfortable with it. Any agreement is better than none. Regards

Our agreement is that 2S is a cue-bid raise with 10+pts. If partner has a stopper he should bid 2NT or 3NT with extra values. The 2S is not a GF. I will also appreciate if you can explain the meaning of "generic game force".

[hv=pc=n&e=sqhqjt3dkqjt74ck7]133|100[/hv] Dealer: East Vul: All Game: MP You open with this hand and the bidding goes: 1D - (1S) - 2S - (Pass) 3D - (Pass) - 3S? The question here what does 3S mean here? . . . what is the intention of your partner? What do you rebid? What is the best agreement on this kind of bidding? Although I have given the hand I am after what should be the agreement be when your partner makes a repeat cue-bid in the opps suit after you have denied a stopper. Apologies if I have posted this to the wrong forum. Regards

Boards are being generated by sofware on a PC and prepared for local tourneys and club mornings at a local club. Will it be possible to take the ouput file and import it into BBO for maybe training or discussion? Regards

If the bidding is: 1NT* - (Pass) - 2♦ - (Double) 2NT** - (4♦) - Pass? * 15-17 ** breaking the transfer with max Is the pass from partner forcing here? Regards