nekthen

Transfer to a major and then cue bid Minors can be awkward any way. I think 4c as RKCB for clubs is as good as anything and better than Texas

My partner and I are experimenting with all immediate jumps to 4 being RKCB in the suit bid, after an opening 1N or 2N and after a 1N or 2N rebid. Has anyone else done this? It appears to make it easy to check controls and find a key Q, which is especially useful when choosing between playing in a suit or NT and choosing between 6 or 7. It has always seemed to me that transfers make the leap to 4 as a sign off redundant example [hv=pc=n&s=sj843hj43dt84ct98&w=sak96ha97daqj5cq4&n=s52hq865d9763c763&e=sqt7hkt2dk2cakj52&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=2np4cp4d(3%20key%20cards)p4hp4s(KS%20and%20QC)p7nppp]399|300[/hv] Less than half the field bid 7, and I bet those who did were not 100% certain it was cold

If 3♠ is a normal invitational raise, then I do not think I would accept. If my partner only bid 3♠ on the North I would be upset with him (and I play 4 card majors) I think KJxx xx Kxxx Qxx is a respectable raise to 3 and you are less than 50% to make 4

I am not sure that "normal" bidding gets to 6 See other results 1S 4H 4S 4N (exclusion rkcb showing h void) 5D 5S (cant go on with those clubs) 6S (I have a stiff club that must be worth something on the auction) Not sure this would happen at the table but seems plausible BTW while the actual defence is helpful, 6 makes on any lead

true. We need 6 tricks in clubs. I have A532 and the 8 and 6 are out there after 2 tricks 1. North has both. Contract cant be beaten. 2. North has one of them, contract can be beaten by cashing the A 3. North is void. I lead a low ♣ and W wins and switches to a ♦ I believe that West made a mistake returning the 9 as this indicates originally holding 3 cards. If he returned the 6 (the original 4th), East should get it right and lead a low card back

Maybe it is best to duck trick 2

Over East's 3♠? DIRECTOR!

It also illustrates the power of controls [hv=pc=n&n=sqjthk65432dkqtc2]133|100[/hv] Who thinks this hand is worth a splinter?

Yes Much the same as xxx - AKxx - Axxxx - x, or Kxx - AKxx - xxxxx - x, or even Kxx - Kxxxx - Axxx - x Point is K♠ is just as good as an A but harder to identify, but xxx - AKxx - Kxxxx - x is useless

I can see 5♥, 2♣ and 3[c] ruffs, A♠ plus K♠ or A♦ So I need partner to hold K♠ or A♦ and AKxx♥ This is hardly a stretch but kickback is not going to tell us about KS. If I could cue bid 4♠, then partner can bid 4N hear my 2 aces and Q♥ and then of course he has to bid 6♥ lol Therefore partner needs to be good enough to cope with a 5♠ response and he can't count the 5th ♣ So at some point bidding a making slam may require a leap of faith or we need a tighter agreement on the number of control points promised by a splinter 4+ would be perfect on this occasion!

Double indicates 3 card heart support 1NT is presumably a balanced hand I would say about 8-11 and I guess 2 hearts The choices is between pass and 2c and I vote pass with no liking for partners inevitable 2H bid

When playing against any artificial system, resist the urge to ask what an alert means. You will be amazed how often opps do not know the answer! If you have no intention of bidding do not ask, ever. If you are confused at the end of the auction, use your right to ask about the bidding. Much faster. Also, how often do you need to ask the meaning of a 1 club bid?

I also like CyberYeti’s sequence. A couple of observations. 1. The scoring is important, at MPs 4c more or less forces you to slam or indicates a hand totally unsuitable for 3N so I would bid 3c, which I believe is forcing. At IMPs 4c is fine. 2. The implication behind the cuebids of 4h and 4s that the 4s bidder has at least 2nd round control of ♦ is very important 3. I have started playing jump support to 4 of a minor as rkcb so I would need 2nd round control of both red suits to use it happily here. I would probably bid 4d at IMPs and 3c at pairs.

I also like CyberYeti’s sequence. A couple of observations. 1. The scoring is important, at MPs 4c more or less forces you to slam or indicates a hand totally unsuitable for 3N so I would bid 3c, which I believe is forcing. At IMPs 4c is fine. 2. The implication behind the cuebids of 4h and 4s that the 4s bidder has at least 2nd round control of ♦ is very important 3. I have started playing jump support to 4 of a minor as rkcb so I would need 2nd round control of both red suits to use it happily here. I would probably bid 4d at IMPs and 3c at pairs.

This is more or less what I thought. The problem is that if declarer can scramble 5 or 6 tricks, he will outscore the people who have had their opps bid and make game, Maybe this is just a win for the weak NT but maybe we need a better bidding structure.

Opps are playing 12-14 1N [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1ndp]133|100[/hv] If pass is not alerted how do you bid? If I bid a suit am I rescuing or am I inviting game? If pass is alerted as forcing, how does that change your answer?

I am playing MP I think 1N will score better than 3♦, so I am passing. At imps I make an effort to find a game. If opps come back in I can bid my diamonds

[hv=pc=n&s=sq742ht7dk532cq72&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1dp1hp]133|200[/hv] Sorry I want to bid 1♠ and I am happy that partner may pass [hv=pc=n&n=skt63hak95dt5cqj5&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1dp1hp2cp]133|200|God I wish p had bid 1N[/hv]

MikeH "It also renders bidding a hand such as xxx x KQJxxx Jxx impossible...this is a 2D rebid, yet XYZ makes 2D an artificial game force." Playing XYZ the bidding goes 1C 1D 1H 2C 2D pass simples If opener is strong he avoids the 2D puppet "But even non-walsh players occasionally get dealt a hand such as xxx x KQxxx Qxxx where the 1H rebid stymies them. They can hardly bid 1N on xxx in the unbid suit, cannot afford to rebid that diamond suit, and therefore need to bid 2C. XYZ eliminates that." Of course you can rebid 1N. Yes once in a blue moon 2C will be the best contract but 1N will usually be as good or better and do you really want to bid 2C when partner could have only 3?

33+ is required for 6NT but if p is distributional, we can easily have enough for a slam

Not sure what you mean, 2♦ is unlimited. I have not said I am signing off in 4♥

My preferred solution is xyz So after 1c 1d 1h 1S is natural and weak 1N is also weak with 4 diamonds 2C is invitational strength major suit length not yet revealed or weak with 5+ diamonds. Partner will bid 2D unless he does not want to hear pass from a weak diamond hand 2D is artificial GF 2H is a weak raise

This is very different to lebensohl. You are giving up the ability to play 3N, which can easily be the last making game. The redouble, I have always thought to be pointless as you are giving opps an extra bid (pass), but clearly, you can sow confusion! Clearly the redoubler expects 3S to make, but that does not mean he has a power house. I think pass must have some positive meaning, 3N is to make and any other bid is weak.

1♦ 1♥ 1N 4N 6N Bridge is a simple game! If partner has a spade suit he can always use checkback

This is an evaluation question for West. IMO this is not a particularly strong hand, unless I get some support, so I vote 1♥ not dbl As for East, his (I assume male) behaviour is as bad as his bidding. I can sympathise with not opening a weak 2, but I would pass 1♥ from N, I have a weak hand, but I do have the spades. Partner has either 1. A regular take out dbl. This looks and smells unlikely 2. A balanced hand too strong for 1N. Possible and he will be able to bid it later 3. A single-suited rock crusher. most likely and almost certainly hearts Partner thinks he has type 3. I disagree but that's bridge. I am glad to know ML and SH agree! What can South do now? Pass and hope or bid 1N and hope. If he passes West can double and NS will have to settle for playing doubled somewhere After 1N West cannot double, because he will be showing hand 2. If he passes he is indicating hand 1, so must bid 2♥, which gets passed out