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Partner opened 3N (gambling) opps interfered with 4♠, my bid. I chose 4N Partner's hand [hv=pc=n&e=st4hq2dakqj6532c9&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=3n4s4np]133|200[/hv] What now?

So Partner opens 2N with 2 or 3 Spades and 4 Hearts and I have 5 spades and 3 Hearts I want to use Stayman in case of 5-3 heart fit. 2N 3C 3D 3H denying 4 hearts 3N denying 4 spades ? now I cannot bid 4S in case of 5-2 and miss the 5-3 spade fit So the 54 problem is solved but there is a hole with 5 spades and 3 hearts Or have I still missed something?

Not sure I understand 3N. If using 5 card Stayman, you might bid 3♣ holding 3-3 majors and after 3♦ you would bid 3N. So you might be 4-4 but it is not necessarily so.

I have noticed much discussion on what to do with 5♠ and 4♥ GF. Some were advocating 3♠, but this seems a bit wasteful. Assuming we play Stayman (Puppet), RSTs, and 4 minor swiss transfer and 4 major is to play we have 3 Spades and 3N available. Others were suggesting 3S as puppet to 3N allowing a 4 level bid to be natural and slammish. I guess that you can also pass 3N So does this mean that 3N is 5♠ and 4♥? Also there are a number of ways to get to 4 of a major with 6+ cards 2N 4M - weak I want to declare 2N 4m 4M - weak I want you to declare 2N 3red 3M 4M - would have looked for slam if partner had broken the transfer 2N 3S 3N 4M - presumably this is forcing to slam. Could this be rkcb responses? Does anyone use this structure? Any obvious gaps? I can see one. Minor two suiters. I suppose this could be covered by 4N as a replacement for quantitative, which on my view is a waste when 2N has such a narrow range

imho I do not think you understand rubber bridge. Assume you go down in 5c, even undoubled. thats another 100 invested in this rubber. Opps are still game and 40 and massive favourites to win a 2 game rubber. (I am assuming this is old school rubber not chicago) Rubber bridge is not about doing the best you can on one hand. It is about the series of hands that make up the rubber. The other problem with bidding on this hand, at any form of scoring, is that you are very unlikely to win the auction, in which case you may well be pointing declarer towards the right path to make his contract Last night I played in 3N and had to bring in AQT932 opposite K5 to make the contract. I played the K and finessed for the J. RHO had bid 2N for the minors. Without that bid I would have played for the drop and gone down

At rubber bridge I would pass. They have the rubber in the bag. Let it go and hope to get your money back on the next rubber. At pairs or imps you go with the field and bid 4N or 5c although I have a sneaking admiration for the passers

I guess many do not have much experience with rubber. I pass at all forms of scoring, but at rubber it seems clear cut to pass. You want to win the rubber and you are in pole position. The worst that can happen is that you make a bad sacrifice in 4♠ having pushed them into bidding 4♥ which they would not bid on their own. If they stop in a part score, you are still favourite to win the rubber. At MP or imps I will compete the part score, but I will pass initially and act if the opps look like they are going to buy a 2 level contract

The advantage of all sequences ending at 2N to show range, is that you then have the standard set of responses. Puppet, RSTs etc. 3N rebids take away the conversation

People when you call the director, as you should IF you believe there has been an infringement, then you tell him/her what happened. The director consults the book and makes a ruling. You do not argue. You accept the decision and get on with the game. If you think you can do better, by all means get trained and and become a director.

Clearly declarer needs a refresher course in Laws and Ethics before being allowed back to the club

Rule of 19, ZAR count, an easy 2♥ rebid and owning spades all point to this being an opening bid. Ideally, we stop at 5 or bid 6 and dont get a ♦ lead

Well I guess i am a random club player

These are two very different sequences for opener. The 1N rebid has limited his hand while the 1♠ rebid is unbalanced and unlimited. 2N seems to be a sign off indicating the low end of the possible holdings with no support for hearts and no more spades than advertised. 3♥ indicates three card support and is GF if opener bid 1♠ After 1N,3♥ is Pick a game. Bear in mind that responder had the opportunity to bid 2♦ GF and artificial and opener has the option to bypass 2♦ if he is not prepared for responder to pass If opener has 4♠ he should first bid 1N or 2N if he is balanced and in range a spade fit can still be found.

Are we playing imp or mp? If imps I will bid 4N rkcb (or 4♣ or 4♦) and settle for 6♣ At pairs I might try harder to get partner to bid N first. Bidding 6N and losing the first two ♦ tricks is not going to please p We can always hope that partner realises from our bidding that the k♦ is a golden card and he will have the smarts to bid 6 N himself

People wonder why I play acol. This is the reason. Just open 1♣. Simples.

1N 12-14 pass simples

What do I need to jump to 3[♣]? I would think about the scoring at this point we only need 7 tricks to outscore game and 9 tricks to outscore slam. Surely partner has 5+♥ and 6+♦ and a minimum. When my partner doubles for money I don’t take it out The next question is “is this really a penalty double?” The correct answer is yes. I hope partner knows that!

I am with those who bid 4♥ instead of 2♥

Opps system appears flawed 3♥ 6 cards upper range? What are the other possible responses? You cannot fit it all into the available bids! Also I generally refuse to assign any sort of description to a 2N relay except to say that my partner thinks it the best available bid. West is never in a position to double. As East, I have the option to make a TO dbl, but I would be afraid that partner will have a 3433 hand and has to pass or bid 3N with insufficient points. This is a team of 4 match and I do not want to risk doubling into game v gaining an imp or two with a successful double or landing in an unplayable 4 of a minor I'd like to know what happened at the other table. I imagine 2♥ p p x; p p p I guess the best option is for East to double 2N and agree it shows a hand that would have doubled if N had passed, then West can double 3♥, though S may choose to pass and put pressure on West and it is all very murky!

I use this structure to respond to 1N Stayman and RST then 2♠ is a range inquiry that may include either a strong hand 55 or better in minors or a weak hand with a long minor Partner responds 2N weak or 3♣ strong then you show the strong minors hand by bidding 3 of your short major 2N shows either a strong single suiter or a weak two suiter Partner now bids his better minor and if responder has a strong single suiter he bids 3♥ to show clubs etc FWIW 3♣ puppet stayman 3♦ 3145 or 3154 slam oriented 3♥ 1345 or 1354 3♠ 54xx GF

As there is no side entry in your hand, You need p to hold Ax(xx) in clubs or Jxx and an entry. So maybe there is an argument for 4th highest here, though you are losing out when declarer has AJ doubleton. At pairs the risk/reward is lower (ie 3N+1 may well be 0%) and you may well be correct to lead K or Q. The reason for bidding 2N on such a hand is that partner may pass a 1♥ bid and so will everyone else. This is especially true if you hold a 22 count rather than a 20 count as the probability of missing game is higher and with puppet stayman available we should not miss a major fit.

I agree with MsJennifer. Ideally you have 5♠ but I think 4♣ showing a strong two suited hand with clubs and spades is the closest option. Second option that no one has mentioned is to pass. Red v green this is a winning option if game is not there or they are down five Because of the scoring, partner must know that 4♦ is not going to score well and should try 5♣. Unfortunately, 4♥ or 4N will be taken as agreeing diamonds.

Do I expect partner to have AKQ♣? I am almost certain to lose a club and a spade.

Presumably partner can be 2344 and 12-14 on this auction. I assume he would have bid 3N with any form of ♠ stopper. If he is better than that, I think it is his job to bid 4N. I think we can hardly have less than what we have got to bid 4♠ In other words, I too give it one last try with 5♦

As Bad Wolf pointed out 2N on a bare 15 is asking for trouble. Personally, I think Souths hand is so poor that I would open 1N