andy_h

I'd bid 1H too. I have no experience in Michaels-ing with 5-4+, so I'm not sure about that (?). It just feels like competitive bidding may get a bit hard if it's not 5-5. Having said that, I do somehow recall on vugraph a while ago that, maybe it was an italian pair but i could be completely off the charts here, that (1m)--P--(1NT)--2m (don't remember what minor was opened) was majors, at least 5-4.

Whilst I prefer my opponents to do something completely loopy and concede 800 and 670 on the first two boards, I don't think we have any cause for complaint when they don't. Sorry. My initial intention was not trying to look for a complaint or anything, but wondering if there is any possible case to overrule his X, as you are unsure whether he would X with AKQJxx Qx AKx xx or alike, thinking we may have something useful in terms of high cards. And when there are huge double fits around not knowing who can make what, is it always down to bidding over the opponents to take the insurance or X'ing them and it can pretty much never be passed out? I guess the point of the previous hands, were to see how you take LHO's conservatism into account in making your decision over partner's X on the 3rd hand. To me, I thought the 1st hand looks pretty good, 2 losers in hearts with a very nice side suit and partner promising 5+S. I forgot to add that he suggested/asking, while putting his hand down as dummy, that X of 3H would be a cue raise. If 3S in the partnership was agreed that it does show extras, then it is definitely fair enough, but if he thought he had no such agreements, I would think at vul imps he would bid 4S. As for the 2nd hand, to me it looks like a very clear X. Isn't this hand like worth better than in this thread's one? http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=24139&hl= AAK with a shortage, it's not like you are going to risk coming back into the auction later so you might as well get in early and get out early. LHO didn't even really consider X'ing when his partner suggested he would definitely X after the hand was finished. If my LHO did look like what he was bidding conservatively, then that's fair enough. Which brings back to the last hand. If LHO has a really good 2suiter, and bid slam pretty confidently (maybe 3-0 in the pointed suits or something?), I am wondering if that's any persuading factor into passing or pulling partner's X?

I was thinking about what I would do in this position, and did end up thinking probably 2S (partner can be X-ing a bit offshape), but 2S means we could still have an awful hand. I didn't actually play that hand as I was sitting out. They were also discussing about this hand should do a X on the previous round (directly over 2H). I had thought it's a bit aggressive given partner can open pretty light in 3rd seat NV. What do people think of that?

Random laziness and sometimes short term memory goes away due to lack of concentration, like partner signals with the 5 and I semi-notice that card but then focus on what card I'm going to play next in anticipation of what declarer's going to play and then go crap, what did partner signal just then.

Playing 2/1, the opponents are decent. You are in 4th seat (South) holding: [hv=d=w&v=n&s=s5hat6543dkq7ckq6]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Auction goes: P---1C*---4S---X P---4NT----P----? 1C = can be short, X=takeout/cards, 4NT=2 places to play What do you bid? If it matters or w/e, you're allowed to open light with distributional hands but not like bal 11counts etc.

Playing against decent opponents, you hold: [hv=d=s&v=n&s=sq9ha652d862cqj42]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You are in 1st seat, playing 2/1 and the auction goes as follows: P---P---1S---2H P---P---X-----P ? Your bid.

Not sure if these will affect any decisions, but here's the story. You're playing with your regular partner and the opponents are quite good as they've been in the open team before, but they are a totally fresh partnership. Both sides are playing 2/1. 1st couple of boards you witness your LHO do these few things: [hv=d=e&v=n&s=s9876hj4dakcak953]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] He is in 2nd seat and auction goes: p---1C---1H---1S 3H--3S---p----4S All Pass. You wonder why he had bid 3S. Few boards later on, he held: [hv=d=e&v=n&s=s9876hj4dakcak953]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] He's in 2nd seat and auction goes: 1S---p(?)---p---3H 3S--4H----4S---p p---5H--All Pass. Now here comes the hand. [hv=d=e&v=n&s=s9876hj4dakcak953]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You're in 1st seat at all vul and auction goes: p---1H---X---2NT* 2NT is explained as INV+ with 4+♥'s. You decide to bid 3♦, agree? Let's say you do, and the auction follows: 3D--4C---4S---5H 5S--6H----X-----p ? Is this the most obvious wtp pass?

3♦ - certainly the best description. I have such a nice hand that I don't want to take up too much room without exploring further.

I agree that my hand's not a thing of beauty, but I think I still bid 2♥. I'm a passed hand and have a 5-4 so this feels just about there. And for all I know this could be a partscore battle. As to partner's 2nd X? Hmm, agree with mikeh's analysis that this auction does seem a bit weird. As we are playing against newbies, is there a chance still that RHO would raise diamonds before bidding their spades? And does LHO have to have 6diamonds for bidding 4♦ as he could just be a 5-4 since he knew they had a diamond fit? Really not sure about partner's 3H-then-x. It looks like penalties so I'm going to pass.

If constructive raises were agreed, then South's hand isn't worth one so I'd take the 1NT-->2S route.

I was first taught, 4M=11-12, 3NT=13-15, 3M=16+ all with no shortages. So I will now bid 3S =). I would also open this 1NT.

Agree

Double.

If my hand's suited for it, then 4441s or 4-4 majors.

It's either 3NT or 4H. If I don't know what partner's preempt style are like, then I opt for 4H.

Pass. Partner's told you to go away and I will oblige to it =)

Yes. Sorry. Opener hasn't denied 4 hearts, responder hasn't denied 4 hearts. Why do I have to force to game to find out if we should be playing in freakin' hearts? Same logic as 1♣-1♦-1♥-1♠. Again, why do I need to force to game to find our major suit fit? I'm not saying that 2♥ and 1♠ here have to be natural 100% of the time, but if you play 4SF as GF, shouldn't these be exceptions? I think this most definitely depends what kind of system/convention you're playing. Take the 1st example of 1D-1S; 2C-2H. Yes it's true that opener can still have 0-4-5-4 and responder may have a weak 5-5Majors hand but the question you should ask is, what if responder's got the ordinary game forcing hand? What is he meant to bid now? 4C/D whilst bypassing 3NT? 3H bumping up an extra level? The answer is that it's too hard without 2H being 4th suit GF. So, now what if the hands were really 0-4-5-4 opposite 5-4+Majors and a weak hand? Responder then will have to deal with a false preference or whatever. This is also the reason why people have devised a convention for this sort of problem, a 1C-2D/H or 1D-2M or something alike aka "(reverse) flannery". The auction 1C-1D; 1H-1S. If you are playing walsh style, opener has shown an unbalanced hand with at least 5-4 or 4144 if you open those 1C. Playing walsh style also means that responder with <GF hand strives to bid their major first before diamonds so they can uncover the major fit before partner bids 1NT or the opponents start pre-empting. So if that's the case, responder will only respond 1D with a GF hand or any hand with just diamonds. So therefore this sequence, responder doesn't need 1S to be natural and have 2S as the 4sGF as that also bumps up the auction very high and it also doesn't really exist as a 'natural-but-NF' bid. However, if you play the normal everyone-bids-up-the-line, then in that sequence opener can still have 3424, 3433, 4423 type of hands as well as the unbalanced ones? Not being so familiar in this kind of area where opener doesn't rebid 1NT with a balanced hand, by all means you can have this auction as 1S being natural and 2S the 4sGF.

My instinct tells me that also. I hate leading..

I X first. Without knowing, LHO may bid/raise clubs and partner may be min and unable to act so I want to get my spades across. Now the awkward decision when 2H comes back around to me. Pass or 2S could be right. I'm persuaded by my KQT8x, so 2S it is.

spade for me too

2D is forcing, hence 3D is autosplinter.

Not a big fan of negative freebids myself, but I think fit-showing would be the better treatment out of the ones suggested.

This is a bit awkward. My hand potential is too great, so I am sold by the textbook first pass. As to my 2nd bid, I think 4C would be a FNJ for me, so I'm stuck with a dbl or a pass. I think I'm afraid of partner bidding 4S if I X so I'm opting for the wuss pass. Hopefully partner will have a 2nd bid and I'll be better prepared for it.. Ideally I would certainly like to X and remove partner's 3S to 4C.

Given the conditions I would make another further move as partner has a slam interest via the slower auction. 5C now.

Agree with han