Hanoi5

[hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1c(16+)p1h(xfer%20to%20Spades%2C%208+)p1n(16-21%20Usually%20balanced)p]133|100[/hv] Is it wrong to use a transfer structure for two suited (or 5440) hands? [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1c(16+)p1h(xfer%20to%20Spades%2C%208+)p2n(22+%20Usually%20balanced)p]133|100[/hv] What about here? Natural? Is using the normal 2NT structure (puppet, xfers, baron) bad? How does responder show his high card strength (opener is 'unlimited')? Or is it opener who shows his/her HCP's?

[hv=n&w=skt65h5dqjt43cqj2&e=saqj2hakq43dk95c6&a=1cp2cp2hp2sp3sp?]266|100[/hv] So 3♠ means opener has a 4-card fit, does it ask to start cue-bidding? Could opener just rebid 4♠? Is 3♠ some sort of asking?

A real master... What about the Directors? Why don't they do something?

The most dangerous: a heart.

So in the end it wasn't cucumbers or Spain. It was German Sprouts.

West doesn't have a bridge reason to tank. If s/he does so it is EITHER because s/he is a newbie OR because s/he's trying to mislead, which would be against the laws.

The vulnerability can be seen in the presentation of the problem (all white). It was MP's and they were going down. 5♠ also went down when trumps were A-QTx.

If RHO holds the ♠J? If LHO had 44 in the minors why didn't he bid diamonds?

I might go down a lot, small spade all around. I'm hoping West held 3♠ to the K or J or both.

He might bid 2♠ with the same hand but lacking the ♠A? Then 3♥ doesn't seem crazy/abnormal after your sequence. Lacking the ♠A 3NT could easily go down, so I stand by the 3♦ rebid.

Devastating. I hope it's not a language/logic thing but, devastatiing to declarer or the defense?

[hv=pc=n&e=sj98743h3daqt64c4&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=p1c2c2h2s3h3s4h4s5hpp?]133|200[/hv] 2♣ is natural. What should East do? What if North hadn't bid 4♥?

3NT right away might also do the trick. It's gambling, I know, but it might be better than just bidding 3♦.

I think the bidding sequence calls for a trump lead. I'd even say it looks like a text-book sequence to show a trump lead is called for. Leading anything else might be good, but probably in very particular situations. For example, not leading a trump might make declarer think we hold an honour in the suit, so maybe he'll finesse into partner. Leading a small diamond might fetch Kx from partner. Leading a club might get us an early 'through-dummy's-strength'. I would have chosen the ♣3 as my lead if I felt... 'creative'. The thing is that all those ideas are fantasies and might work every once in a while but a trump lead will get us a good result more often than not.

A new suit after a double shows a very good hand but there are times when partner may choose to pass. In this case I think we'll be fine in 3♦ if partner decides to pass but he'd bid anything with the proper cards to make a game. S/he already showed a bad hand so the ♦K should look like a game going value; hopefully.

I blame South for not reaching 6♠ and North for not reaching 6NT. South's hand should go slower for there are a couple of denominations that should be investigated. North's hand might as well accept the invitation with 16, 6 controls and 3 tens. So South 60% North 40%.

Being red and so 'balanced' I'm gonna pass. I'm not sure what's going on though, partner has the Majors? Did he pass 'cause he has nothing (no double, no further going hand) or was he afraid they'd go back to clubs?

What's 2♦? Is it a bad hand afraid of the redouble (then why didn't it wait for it)? I suppose 2♠ is 'forcing' unless partner is showing a very bad hand and I'd bid that.

In a not 2/1 environment where 2/1 shows 11+ it's better to show the Major at the one level. Usually you'll give up on the minor in such a situation unless your partner bids it. If you still decide to bid 2♣ it is important that opener doesn't bid NT with a 4-card Major. Playing 2/1 FG I usually convene with partners that 1♦-2♣-2♦ shows at least 5 diamonds and doesn't deny Majors, bidding a Major shows 4 cards and not 5 diamonds and Nt denies holding a 4-card Major.

Unless there's some kind of convention for 2♠ that I'm not aware of, I blame East 100%. 1♠ is enough for a forcing 4th suit and 3♦ might also be a possibility but 2♠ I just don't get. West thought he had a fit and supported in spades and maybe he could have smelled a rat at the 3NT and pass (NOT!) but I bet s/he was surprised at the 2♠ bid.

I got downvoted for saying 1NT was a better opening bid that 1♦ in certain topic in the non-natural systems board. It suits me for nosing in topics I don't know much about. It would be nice to know how to show clubs after opening 1♦ on a 3=3=2=5 or any (332)5, though. Anyway and to stay in-topic, can the same person who opened downvoting take away the anonimity of it?

Trying to read Catch 22.

I like to play: 2NT 3♣ 3♦ Not 5 spades or 4/5 hearts 3♥ 4/5♥ 3♠ 5♠ 3ST 4♥/4♠ Then: 2NT 3♣ 3♦3♥ How many spades you've got? 3♠ Bid 3NT 3NT 5♥-4♠ 2NT 3♣ 3♦3♥ 3♠ 3NT (2 spades) 4♠ And: 2NT 3♣ 3♥ 3♠ How many hearts? 3NT To play 2NT 3♣ 3♥ 3♠ 3NT 4♥ 4♥ 5♥

Oops! I didn't read the 'not', just Goulash Tournament. I agree with 4NT specific aces, 2♣ to set hearts as trumps early or 6♥ in case I'm not feeling talkative.

I'd open 1NT for its pre-emptive effect. 2♣ is the alternative IF the partnership is clear that it can be done on a 5-card club suit in 3rd position. 1♦ sucks I think.