Hanoi5

pass 2♦. over X, I bid 3♦. over 2♥, I bid 3♦. over 2♠, I pass. over 3♣, I bid 3♦.

R/W, you receive: x KJ8x AQTx KQJx It goes: Pass Pass 1♦ ??? It's a teams event against weak opposition.

Is there a husband? I haven't read the complete news but I think she had the kids 'artificially' and because 'she didn't want to be alone'.

4NT? I'm not sure though, how many points does partner expects from my hand when he bids 4♠ as advancer?

You deal with no one Vulnerable in a swiss team match: ♠AKTx ♥AQTxx ♦AKT ♣A You open 2♣, and it goes 3♣ on your left, Pass from partner and 4♣ from your RHO, your turn again. How do you plan to continue? What does partner's pass mean in your system? What if it meant a bad hand?

East is more to blame but probably 65% East-35%West or 60-40.

Usually 5M asks partner to go to slam if his/her trumps are strong (at least 2 of AKQ). In this case I think it would show the opposite, good trumps and nothing on the side, if partner has all the controls needed he should go to slam for we will take care of trumps.

My definiton of a take-out double is: - Opening bid values. Usually this means at least 12 HCP but it could be less if you are shorter in their bid suit(s). - At least 3-card support in the unbid suits. There's a preference towards having 4-card Majors but this shouldn't deter you from doubling. - You should be short in their suit(s). I know everyone would double if one of the diamonds were a heart or a spade but having more HCP gives me the 'push' I need to enter the bidding by doubling. The longer you're in their suit the more HCP's you need to double, so if you have 3 cards in their suit you need at least 13. - Some exceptions like 17+ distributional hands or 19+ NT hands. 1. Why would I need to redescribe my hand later in the auction? I think this will only happen if partner jumps in a suit (showing 9-11 HCP) or if he cue-bids (showing 12+). If he jumps I can rebid 2NT or 3♦ or even support his suit at the 3 level 'inviting' partner to game. If partner cue-bids I'll bid 3♣ which shows that clubs is my suit and that I don't have any 4-card Majors; partner has space now to bid 3♦ to ask for a ♦ stopper or maybe pass or bid his 5-card or longer suit. Game would then be highly likely, except if we reach 3NT for my 4333 doesn't provide many tricks. 2. If partner overcompetes on his own he'll be to blame for I will never compete, I'm just telling partner I have an opening hand so that he can compete as his hand pushes him to, which should be good with my HCP's. 3. Yes, this is very true (I even mentioned that doubling would give info to the opponents), but then again I'm expecting our side will have more HCP's and play the hand ourselves. 4. I think I already answered this in 1. My honors in this hand rate to be well placed, opener is more likely to have the aces in the pointed suits so playing or defending they'll probably become tricks. I am not stating that double is a wtp, I just say that it is better for describing the hand early which will be good if the hand belongs to us. Pass is also an option but it will sometimes lead to bad results when the hand is ours.

This hand sort of turned out to be a pre-emptive hand, my only HCP outside spades are in diamonds and apparently badly placed. I sign-off at 4♠.

I'd double 1♦ as the only way to enter the bidding. Pass now and it would be problematic unless partner enters the bidding. Of course you don't want to give information to the opponents when they play the hand but tanking now and then passing will create a bigger problem. If you don't use michael's you have to be clear on what cue-bids should mean. They can be natural (specially over minors) or very strong (18+ and distributional) but this hand does not qualify for either. Bidding notrump is also a bad idea, you don't want to play NT when they open unless you're sure to have more HCP than they.

Interesting. I'll have my female juniors wear a sweater to check whether they're playing fine or just dumbing down the opposition. If I were on another board (non-bridge) I visit Frances reply would have gotten a 'pics or it never happened' response.

1♦, I always open 1♦ on three-suited hands (4441) with both minors. Over 1♥, splinter 3♠. Over 1♠, 2NT. Over 1NT or 2♦ 2♥. Over 2♣ 3♣ unless it's passable, in which case 2♥.

You're a legion Frances.

There are blondes where you play!!!??? I'm moving there...

If the LOL's tank means she has a lot of HCP I pass on both occasions. Without the break in tempo I bid 4♠ and this double should be for penalties so I leave it. Maybe the LOL has diamonds among her hearts, we'll see.

I was wondering 'cause the 'experts' agreed that ♠A and ♠ to the J was the right way to play the trump suit, however after West asked if 5♠ denied the Queen I toyed with the idea of playing the ♠J from the table which was the winning play (spades were 10x - Qxx). I didn't play like that (unfortunately) I just 'toyed' with the idea but I see all of you think it wrong, right?

Why? Is my description that bad?

I think they call it scrambling stayman and some answers are passable of course, I mean stayman is not FG. 1NT is 15-17.

[hv=d=w&v=a&n=skj9xxhqjtxd9xxcq&s=sa8xhak8xdakxckxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] You reach 6♠ and the opponents passed throughout. ♦J was the lead which you took in hand and immediately you played a small club towards the table, West rising up with the ♣A to play a small heart which you win in hand with the Ace over East's 9. How do you tackle trumps if: a. West tanked over 6♠ before passing. b. Nothing unusual happened during the bidding (West didn't tank). c. You bid 5♦ asking for the trump queen and North bid 5♠, West asking if it denied the Queen (and you answered you didn't know but you expected North to have it) d. Are the situations mentioned above important? Do you take this kind of things into account? How or why not?

Would it change your choice had the bidding gone: Pa Pa 1N X 2♣ Pa 2♥ 3♦ ??? Does the fact that you passed at the start change anything? What do the 4♥ bidders say? What would you do if you passed 3♦ and your partner doubled? Would you open the hand we're discussing with 2♠ showing 5♠'s and a minor? How would you make somebody understand it's a bad bid?

W/R, holding: ♠T8xxx ♥KT8x ♦--- ♣JTxx Bidding goes: Pass 1NT x 2♣ Pass 2♥ 3♦ ??? Your 2♣ was stayman, of course and their double was DONT, 3♦ is their suit. Your call and why.

Venezuela plays Canada or Italy to get to the next stage but they were beaten horribly yesterday by the US.

What is Z in clubs?

I'm gonna have to start simulating before answering, unfortunately I can't do it while playing IRL :) When partner has a balanced hand 15-17 there is a 15% chance of a slam. If partner has 17 there is a 45% chance of a slam. Of course my constraints weren't very carefully chosen, opener could have a VERY good 5-card Major which most people would open 1M. (I dealt 100 15-17 and another 100 17 hands). Bottom line, I think it's not such a good idea to invite with this hand unless you're desperate.

I like the 'mild' slam try. This hand might not even be game-worth in front of some 1NT openings but it could also be good for 6. If I didn't have that agreement I'd bid 4NT but purely because I love playing a slam (or that my partner plays it and makes it).