Hanoi5

I thought Apollo81 was exaggerating, but he is quite right, 5♣ and then 6♣ (and then pass over 6♠). Probably 7♠ over 6♠ (if 5♣-6♠).

I only remember seeing someone play 3NT after a 1NT opening in a Killing Defense book, but I'd bid it here. If my partner thought he might pass 1NTx and now he's bidding 3♣ it shouldn't be hard to take 3 tricks with his hand and the lead.

In Spanish we often use 'declaración' (bid) in order to refer to any 'canto' (call). I didn't even think about that when I made this topic (or any topic I've done here), for then every 'what's your bid?' question should really have been 'what's your call?'. (Not bridge related) I believe it's funny how some people get all riled up over most kind of language mistakes, for the real important issue is that we understand each other. It's like asking 'what would you do with this hand?' and getting some philosophical/joking answer like 'I would sort it out and bid correctly' or 'I'll stand up and drink some water' or 'I'll look act it, evaluate it and make the correct call'. We usually know what is wanted from us. There is a Turkish poster who tends to be good at transfering (or whatever mistake it is he's making) Turkish into English, I also think we 'mistreat' him sometimes (sometimes :huh: ). It is also funny how low in steem Britons regard Americans (not only in respect to the language) and how Americans don't seem to realize this and are always praising their former conquerors. This probably has to do with the sense of pride that the British seem to have (as I was sort of reading in George Orwell's 'The Lion and the Unicorn', though I haven't finished). (end of not bridge related stuff) However I'll bother asking this, is it correct to say 'Let's bid this hand' or 'Let's call this hand'? Apparently the verb form of the word 'bid' includes Pass and double, but it's not the same when we use the noun? Finally I meant to ask what the proper action was with the hand in question as an overcall, so maybe I should have asked: 1♥-(???) And I guess we have all agreed that double is way better than 2♣ in contrast with: ♠JTx ♥x ♦AKQJ8 ♣Q9xx After the same bidding I believe this is a 2♦ overcall (I had 4 tables in a class yesterday and only one doubled), but to make a real difficult one, what about: ♠JTxx ♥x ♦AKQJ8 ♣Q9x

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Is my pass forcing? Is my double take-out? I'm not very familiar with this situation.

Definitely game-worthy. However, what is more likely to prompt them to sacrifice? 3♥ and 4♥ over their (hopefully) 3♠ or 4♥ right away?

This is exactly the reason why I posted this question. Any ideas pertaining this?

♠KJxx ♥x ♦Axx ♣Kxxxx 1♥-???

Let's say partner does Michael's or 1NT-4♣ or 1M-(2NT), or any bid which gets you to 'choose' between two suits, and you know both suits to be of the same length in partner's hand. Let's suppose both suits have the same number of cards in your hand in both suits and there's no distinction between the score (both suits are Majors or minors). Which suit do you choose? The best looking or the worst looking? The one with the best quality or the one with the worst quality?

4NT.

♦A3 ♦T642 This seems more likely.

Pass. If there is something to say, next turn will be better.

I'm also gonna play ♠A and another. A singleton ♠K is not that weird.

I have a lack of visa, money and free time as excuses.

Pass (3♦ would be another choice) 2NT (Lebensohl, planning to pass 3♣) 2♣ (2♥ over 2♦ and 3M over 2M)

I agree with 2♣ but, is Pass over 2♦ normal?

♠T or 9, depending on whether you play journalist leads or not.

I agree the root of the problem is education. Not only formal education but the one received/given at home.

I'm gonna teach this class on the importance of thinking on the first trick. Of course I'll be using these extreme hands where the very first play determines what will happen in the hand. Actually, it's somewhat common that contracts be made or defeated on the very first trick. So, I have 14 hands, 8 from the internet and 6 from a Kantar book. I haven't been looking very hard but I remember this one hand where West opens with a pre-emptive and you get to certain contract, West leads his/her suit and you can't put up dummy's ace for it might/will get ruffed and anyway you can/need to use it for a discard in order to make the contract. Would someone point to that hand somewhere on the internet? Or a book? I can make one up but I don't feel like it. If you happen to have more of these hands I would also appreciate it.

He just dropped a contact lense, c'mon!

[hv=n=skqxha98xxxdjxcjx&s=sajtxxhdaqtxxckqx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] You reached 6♠ and received a ♥Q lead (your partner opened 1♥). How would you play it?

You'd better sacrifice some virgins to them 'cause this falls on the miracles cathegory. Good for you.

Pass. Or 6♦ or 6♥ or 6NT. Nope, Pass.

There are at least two positions regarding this matter, and clearly you stand on the 'not accepting side'. There are views one way or the other, in fact if I'm not mistaken, with last year's change of the laws it can be allowed by the sponsoring organization the checking of your own system during the bidding (or play). So until laws are in use in this respect your only option is to mark down players who do it and not play at their tables or ask in tournaments about their policies (I think tournaments do not accept this, anyway).

This must be a language thing but, whose partner's opened 3NT? OP's partner or holder-of-discussed-hand's partner? 4♥ in the first case, 5♣ in the second (6♠ over 5♠).