plaur

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak743ha2dkj4ckt6&s=s5hq8da9865caj543]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1♠ - 2♦ 3NT...6♦ ... = many bids lead ♥J[/hv] The 3rd slam swing I lost in one 32 board match last night ;) Whats the best plan here ? I actually did ♥A, ♠A, ♠K but ♠K got ruffed by LHO and then I failed to find both minor Q's. Other table made 11 in 3NT

Both kings were offside and you get a club return

I did not work for me ;) I actually started with ♠A and low ♠ to Q.

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sq9642hajtdk75cqj&s=sa7hkq732da6cat96]133|200|Scoring: IMP 1♥ - 1♠ 2♣ - 4♥ 6♥ lead ♥6[/hv] 1♥ was 4-card major What is the best plan and how good is this slam?

[hv=d=e&v=n&s=saq42ht65dj73ckt7]133|100|Scoring: MP p-2♠-p-p* 2♠=7-11HCP and exactly 5 spades * pass after BIT[/hv] How about this one? Can you tank and then pass when partner opened 2♠ in second hand, showing 7-11 HCP and exactly 5 spades?

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=s43hkt985dkjt2c96&w=skjt96hqj6da8cq32&e=sq5h743dq3ckjt854&s=sa872ha2d97654ca7]399|300|Scoring: MP p-p-1♦-1♠ X-p-1NT-p p-2♠-p-p 3♦-p-p-3♠ p-p-p[/hv] We defended 3♠ for down 2. +100 was not good at MP's :( Please comment on NS bidding

I guess the question really is: Is 2NT forcing? In a teams match i got 13 tricks in 2NT :unsure: and partner did not agree when I said 2NT was forcing, looking for best game with one spade stop, say Kx, and some tolerance (Hx) for hearts. She said: bid 2♠ if you want to force.

(1♠) - 2♣ - (pass) - 2♥ (pass) - 2NT We have agreed to play 2♥ as non-forcing, invitational. What should 2NT mean and why? Is there any logic to apply here on different bids by overcaller or is it down to agreements?

With one partner I have these agreements: At Imps: bid 3NT with any non minimum. At Pairs: bid 3NT with an above average hand. It conflicts with this meta agreement we have to avoid both hands going nuts at imps: At imps any invite is agressive and the 'accepting' hand should not compensate at all, since the invitee has already done that! We struggle to keep this agreement, but we dont miss many games :lol:

My intended solution: Cross in clubs and play the ♥J. If not covered overtake. At the table I thought how silly it would be to run the ♥J and lose to the Q with hearts 2-1, so I played the ♥A. Sure LHO was void and RHO had ♥QT8. Down one. RHO told me that he would cover the ♥J. Wouldnt most BI's cover the J from QT8?

[hv=d=w&v=e&n=sj863hj542djt2cak&s=sqt92hak9763d6cq9]133|200|Scoring: IMP 3♦-p-p-3♥ p-4♥-all p lead ♦K overtaken by Ace and ♦8 played at trick two You win by a low ruff and now what?[/hv] Opponents are not experts. T1: ♦K - ♦2 - ♦A- ♦6 T2: ♦8 - ♥3 - ♦4 - ♦T T3: you?

There was no UI. Director commented that NS was damaged by the wrong explanation and that with correct explanation NS would have found 4♥ and that EW might not have found 5♦.

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=skq8hj8543dck7653&w=sjt965h6dkj84cj92&e=sa2hqt97dqt96532c&s=s743hak2da7caqt84]399|300|Scoring: IMP p - p - 1NT - 2♠*1 3NT-4♥*2 - X - p p - 5♦ - X - p p - p *3[/hv] How would you rule on this? Jurisdiction Denmark. Local clubgame, 32 board swiss teams match. *1 East alerts and explains "2♠ is both majors, can be 4-4" *2 After East has bid 4♥ East says "On no, 2♠ was both minors!" Director called. He says continue, I will rule after game if needed. *3 Before lead West explains "2♠ is spades and a minor" EW agreement is "2♠ is spades and a minor" 5♦ X made 10 for -100 Director ruled NS get to play 4♥ making 10 for 620 The board was played 14 times that night with results: 5♥ doubled making 10, once 4♥ making 9, twice 4♥ making 10, six times 5♦ doubled making 10, four times 6♦ doubled making 10, once

[hv=d=w&v=b&w=sat854h6432dat97c&s=shakqjt9dq862ct83]266|200|Scoring: XIMP 2♦*-P-2♠-3♥ p-3NT-X-ppp * both majors Lead ♠K then ♠Q and ♠7[/hv] 2♦ both majors (could be 4-4), 2♠ to play, opps took a long time for their bids. Partner leads ♠K follows with ♠Q and ♠7. There are no experts at the table, but your partner is the best cardplayer at the table. What now? (Dummy played two clubs and a diamond)

Unusual vs unusual was not an option. 3♣ would have been understood as natural. Anyway I bid a silly 3NT and claimed rest on the lead for 520. P had a sharp 19 and the 2NT bidder had JTx KT98x J Jxxx 3♥ X - 4 would have scored just as poorly as 3NT

Thanks Justin. When you say its close I know I am not totally off track beeing in doubt. Always enjoy your answers and most everyones here, and try to learn from them.

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=sxhak9xxxxdxxcxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] I opened with a weak 2♥ and put a small heart in between the diamonds when I put down dummy :) Didnt want pard to mistrust my weak two's! I was very much in doubt whether to open 2 or 3. Somehow it felt wrong to open 3♥ vul vs not at mp's with a suit headed by AK. What do you say?

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sa964hadqt9863cq7]133|100|Scoring: MP 1♦-p-1♠-2NT X*-p- ? *No agreements, sup x is not in play[/hv] We have no agreements after opps 2NT. Partner does not have 15-17 bal. Whats your plan?

[hv=d=s&v=e&s=st93ha32dk532ca92]133|100|Scoring: IMP p-p-p-1♣ ?[/hv] How would you rate a takeout double here(you passed in first hand)?

Thanks for replies all. Style of weak two's can be wide ranging! From "if you breathe and have a five card suit, sorry p thought I had six :)", through "colors are for kids" to "very disciplined and descriptive". Regardless of the style you use, if you had to choose method, RONF or not, would the choice depend on the style of weak two's?

I was subbing tonight and the evening started with a pro giving a 30 min lection (for beginners) on weak two's. He strongly advocated that any new suit (without jump) from responder being invitational only. Im used to RONF. What do you think is the pro and cons of the two methods?

Sorry if I am hijacking. This reminds me of this hand where my partner 'denied' 4 spades in the bidding and I got confused on defense [hv=d=n&v=e&s=s5432hkjdqckjt982]133|100|Scoring: MP p - p - 1♣ - 1♥ X*-2♥ - all pass * shows exactly 4 spades[/hv] If you were subbed in to bid after 2♥ would you bid 2♠?

Thanks for answers all! Clear majority for game force. I did invite and now I am trying to learn why my hand evaluating is wrong and find out how I can improve. The actual hand was even better! I remembered the hand wrong. [hv=v=n&s=skq9xxhjdkxcqj8xx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♣ 1♠ 1NT ?[/hv] My thoughts: If we have a 5-3 spade fit I want to be in game. If partner accepts an invitation I also want to be in game. I do want to give partner a chance to play a club partial if he has a crappy 11 or 12. I understand that in a teams game: Do not look for reasons to stay out of game; look for reasons to bid game. This hand has 12 HCP, 55 and a club fit and STILL I can not get rid of the feeling its only worth an invite :) The question I ask myself is: How often do game make on the hands that partner rejects the invite with? If game is worse than 50%(for a non-vul game) on average then an invite is right. Is that correct?

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=skq9xxhjdkxxcqjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1♣ 1♠ 1NT ?[/hv] 12 board teammatch, none vul. How do you evaluate this hand? You can bid 2♦ as game force or 2♣-2♦-2♠ to show invite with 5 spades

Thanks Brian. The team didnt do as well as hoped. Its 16 teams swiss, winners qualify and 2nd may get qualifying matches. I had a lot of fun though. To bad I dont have anyone to play Bob's system with. I do miss having a partner to play a system with that many solid agreements. I have two reg partners but havent used nearly as many hours praticing bidding as we did with Bob. I miss that, but do enjoy offline play more than online.