HeartA

I agree with Peter on those two bids: 1) minor transfer if you use it(and then 3N) or start with 3D if that is forcing. 2) I would use splinter (3S).

I would bid 2S which doesn't promise 6 since I didn't bid it over 2D. I would support H in the next bid.

An "expert" like me would be able to make 4H with the way Zia defended (2 black Aces and then spade). With a club continuation at trick 3, I would probably go down. BTW, I "never claim down 1" for a game contract...

2(S)+3(H)+3(D)+3C = 10?

Trick #1, DJ on dummy, Trick #2, H/C (or even D) to hand, Trick #3, S finesse, Trick #4, small S to justify losers ... North would be squeezed on H and C.

I would dbl 3C as well.

Phil, looks like we are the two voting for 3C (b4 seeing your comments).

Jacoby 2NT, forces to game.

They are my choices as well.

Completely agree with whereagles.

MP or IMP, pass is absolutely out. I would bid 2S reluctantly.

To search for another 5-3 fit might land you a slam with "game strength" ( That is what 2-suit RKC for). Say, pd opener holds, AKxxx, QJx, x, Axxx, or the like.

With such a holding, I would NEVER bid 4S immediately. I would start with 2H.

I agree with Marlowe and would bid 3H. And as neilkaz said, I would hid my spades.

Even with such a holding, it's a low possibility to face a WEAK spades. What if pd holds AKQx, Kxxx, Axx, xx? A spades slam is quite promising. Having said that, I do agree to bid 3N with weak 4-card major. But in most cases, I prefer using Stayman for a few reasons:

Well, I don't agree. It is true that one should trust partner, but it doesn't mean that (s)he is the (only) prefect fit for you, nor does it mean that (s)he is the best player. After all, we are all humans and do wrong things from time to time. The 4H bid is beyond my understanding and surely not a cue-bid, so I pass (as many say on this forum, if you don't understand a bid, pass it).

With an ace and a doubleton, I prefer a direct 2H, though 1N is the close second.

Didn't read the original post carefully, thought 1H got doubled. I agree that South should pass 1H and run into 2D if 1H got dbled and passed to me. Edit: I wouldn't open with South's hand either. In rare case when I opened, I would not introduce my S suit after RHO dbled and pd bid 1H.

Agree with these two points.

I would pull to 2D which is better than 1S. Playing 1S, my D suit would become garbage.

I don't like the "promise" dbl shows 4-4 majors. If so, the dble would be not too much useful. As the opener with 4-4 majors, I would have dbled over 2D. And I agree that 2S is better than 2H: S were better and you could bid H later if necessary.

4NT or 4C.

4H as "lead directing raise"? It doesn't make sense to me at a passed-out position. I think it is to play (he might be afraid of forcing if he bid 4H at the first place). BTW, I might open 4S as well, though 3S is also fine.

I thhink your play is OK (in my style, at least). 1) With 4 cards, you don't don't over-take with HA at trick #1. While to play H10 could cost a trick, so the H6. 2) At trick #2, if you play H5, it might block the suit, while H10 may confuse pd (not that much if he thinks carefully). Over-take with HA is OK. 3) You couldn't have A106 only, with which you would play H10 at trick 1. Besides, you did have A106 only, it wouldn't do any good to overtake. In summary, it's 100% partner's fault: 1) didn't play HJ at trick 2 and 2) mistakely overtake with HJ.

I agree with Roland on these points completely