TWO4BRIDGE

You were pretty close to the hand: void K 10 8 x x x A K Q J x x x void I just took a stab at 6H ( over partner's 1H rebid ) since I had no GSF "enhanced system" . But I should have played Culbertson's "plain vanilla" GSF just in case partner had BOTH A and Q to end in 7H . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - So far, I think Frances' "opposite direction" system is best ...

1C - 1D 1H - 5NT ?? A x x x Q J 9 x x A K x x What is your reply to the Grand Slam Force ? Side question: Since you have both black Aces, what does that say about partner's hand ?

♣ Splinter for ♥ as trump; slam try .

Regarding my posts # 8 and # 10..... perhaps 3S should be an "either/or" ... ... that is, either 4 cards ♠ OR a cuebid for ♥ as trump. -- If Opener does NOT have 4 cards ♠, he then bids 3NT . -- If Opener HAS 4 cards ♠, he then bids an advance cue of 4C or 4D .

If 1D - ( X ) - XX = 10+ hcp Then is 1D - ( X ) - 1S = forcing ? ... does it show less than 10 hcp ?

Responder's 3S is showing 4 cards... since Opener could also have 4 cards ♠ and a ♠ slam might be a better place to play . There may be a different way of handling this.... but you don't want to rebid 3NT ( which would also show 4 cards ♠ ) and have Opener pass .

My slam would be based on a "bean count " after a standard 2C opening : 2C - 2D! ( waiting, but positive ) 2NT ( 22-24 ) - 3C ( regular Stayman ) 3H - 3S 3NT - 6NT

I have issues with your RKC approach.... ... but anyway, the 5♦ bid should NOT show a singleton in partner's bid suit... I would think 5♦! would be a K-ask ( cheapest specific reply )... and I agree partner has 6 cards ♣.

Which book is that ? This has been covered before for an opening 6/4 hand . Bidding 6-6-4 is weaker than bidding 6-4-6 .

What is the advantage of 2-way compared to ( 2S ) - 4S! = Strong minor 2-suiter .. ... and then ( 2S ) - 3S is strickly stop-ask ?

[hv=pc=n&s=sha95dc&w=sht72dc&n=shqj8dc&e=shk643dc]399|300[/hv] The lead is the ♥Q from dummy . If East covers, then Declarer may get 3 tricks from the suit if he next finesses for the Ten . If East Ducks, then Declarer can only get 2 tricks .

My version ( in my notes ) to a 3rd Rnd Ctrl-ask ( by-passing the K-ask of 5NT ): 6 trump = no third round control 7 trump = doubleton 6NT = Q 7-ask = QJ

Would Cyberyeti's treatment over a Void response offer an "improvement" to your scheme ? Namely: for Opener to "Show" a void reply ( as if Exclusion were asked ) rather than "Ask" for key cards . After 4H ( Responder's void ): Opener: ?? 4S = sign-off 4NT = 0/3 ( excluding ♥ ) 5C = 1/4 5D = 2 - ♠Q 5H = 2 + ♠Q ... Now, after 5H, Responder can either ask for Kings ( 5NT ) or ask for a 3rd Rnd Ctrl in a suit ( at 6-level ) : ..... - 6C 7C = ♣Q J .... ..... -7S

Bogust: Opener: 3H = 6 card suit, "medium" hand ( ~ 7 LTC [ loser trick count ] ) Responder has a 6 LTC .... 24 - 7 - 6 = 11 expected tricks ( give or take 1 ) in trump contract . Sooo, bid 4S .

pass

You are right about ♥ .. If you had ♥, you would not have DBLed 1H . I agree it is a strange auction . Why would partner raise your 2SX to 3S ? ( if the DOUBLE is for penalty ).

Isn't the order of bidding as follows: ( W ) - N - ( E ) - S ( 1♥) - X - ( 1♠) - p ( p ) - ?? Why would you bid 2♠ ( as natural ) with the Spade bidder BEHIND you ? 2♥ should be natural and 2♠! as the cuebid . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - EDIT : RE. a psyche in this situation : If partner ( the 2D bidder ) had 4 cards ♠, he would DBL instead ; if he had 5+ he would bid 2S .

In this we agree 100%. I have also postulated the idea of using bids like this as a way of investigating 6NT versus 6 of the suit, at least at MPs. It is generally possible to construct the responses so as to make this a genuine possibility. Diferences in replies to Q-ask ( ♥ are trump ) : A) 5S! ( ask is ABOVE 5-of-trump ) - ?? ................. 5NT = ♥ Q and MAY or may not have the ♠K ( the " asking suit " ). ................. 6H = NO ♥ Q B) 5D! ( ask is BELOW 5-of-trump ) - ?? ................. 5H = NO ♥ Q ................. 5S = ♥ Q and ♠ K ................ 5NT = ♥ Q ; NO ♠ K ; but have ♦ K ( the "asking suit " ) ................. 6C = ♥ Q ; ♣ K; but NO ♠ K or ♦ K

Why respond 1D ?? West East - - pass 1C - 2C ( 5+♣, ~ 10 - 11 hcp, no 4 card Major ) 4C ( Minorwood ) .... - 4H ( 2nd step = 1 or 4 ) 6C - all pass

See posts # 5 and # 9 .... ( mikeh and Trinidad ) who seem to "poo poo" the reopening DBL .

5H [ I don't think 4NT is an option since it should show at least 5-5 in the minors . I'm not sure how partner would take 5S after 4NT .]

I reopened this hand the other night: [hv=pc=n&s=st7654h6dt2cqt954&w=skqj2hjdkqj76c862&n=sa9hak932d98543ca&e=s83hqt8754dackj73&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1d1hppdppp]399|300[/hv] 1HX-2 for 8.6 IMPs

Why didn't North make a Neg-DBL at his first turn ?

Playing 2/1 GF : 1H - 2D 3D - 3H = announces a double-fit Now you may want to play 6Ace-RKC ( 4 aces and the 2 red Kings ) . That way you will find out you are missing 2 of 6 key cards... and stay out of slam.

Part of the Neg-DBL convention is to reopen with a DBL to protect partner ( after he has passed ) since he may have a fistfull of Responder's suit.