wyman

If 3D in the quoted auction is nonforcing, then I need to bid 3D over (2H) with a hand like KQxx / xx / AKxxxx / x [H1] But I also need to bid 3D (over (2H)) with Kxx / xx / AQJxxx(x) / Q(x) [H2] So is opener, holding, say, Axxx / AJx / x(x) / KJxx(x) supposed to rebid 3S or 3N over a direct 3D? If opener is supposed to bid 3S, we have a hard time sorting out whether or not there's a heart stopper; certainly responder with H2 can't bid it. If opener is supposed to bid 3N over (a direct) 3D by responder, then when responder has H1, we're missing our spade game for a likely tenuous 3N. That's why I think that X+3D should be forcing.

Yesterday I would have said "2D is weak; with a strong hand, you can bid 2-forcing-diamonds, with room to discover a 4-4 spade fit and still sort out whether you can play 3N." Today, I'll say "2D is non-forcing constructive, since we had 2-forcing-diamonds available with room to discover a 4-4 spade fit and still sort out whether we can play 3N, and we should have been able to tolerate a 3- or 4-spade bid by partner." But I think after 1C (2H), things are different, and we don't have the luxury of distinguishing between all these hand types. Better to allow us to more easily decide on strain with game forcing hands than to compete to the right partscore.

web2.acbl.org/codification/CHAPTER%207-%20Section%20c.pdf

Pass or open 5C for me. Abstain after 3C; it's guesswork at this point.

My dividing line is probably AJ. I need to be able to tolerate a 5D bid from partner, which is usually 6, but he's expecting help over here, and 2 honors would make me feel better. As much as I don't want to miss a game or penalty, I don't want to go for 1100 either.

His point is that with a weak bid in H, you wouldnt be so upset to hear 1D (1S) X (P) 4H but with a weak bid in D, you'd be upset to hear 1C (2H) X (P) 4S

So with a forcing 6-4, are we supposed to bid 3D? And if so, should opener rebid spades or NT with 4=AJx=1=5? 4=AJx=2=4? If NT, this could lead to some very silly 3N contracts, missing 4S. If spades, this could lead to missing some great 3N contracts.

So in N/B, there was discussion of this auction: 1C (2H) X (P) 3C (P) 3D and I didn't think that xx/xxx/KQxxxxx/x really needed to act here, so I thought 3D was forcing. It seems in the thread, people think that we're showing a constructive/competitive 6-4. [i think we're showing a forcing 6-4 or so] On the other hand, the auction 1D (1S) X (P) 2C (P) 2H I think is showing basically a WJS in hearts. The difference, so I thought, was that we don't need to bid weak hands over preempts. So, let's talk dbl and bid by responder. Thoughts?

Yikes -- for those playing at home, I'm starting a thread in I/A :)

I would not open 1N with north's hand. I would open 1C and rebid 1H over 1D, 2H over 1H, and 2S (!) over 1S. Yes, I only have 3 spades, but they are all honors, and I have a singleton that can be used for ruffing. If I'm going to fudge, I'd rather raise spades with this hand than rebid 1N with a singleton D, or rebid 2C with A8xxx. As for X then 3D, on this auction, I play this as forcing. These auctions can often be subtle, but in this case, I don't see the need to act as south with a weak hand over a preempt. So I think X and 3D shows 4 spades and a real diamond suit and is forcing. But you shouldn't draw too many generalizations from this; X-and-bid can mean many things, and it really, really depends on the auction.

♣. I dont really think it matters which one you lead. I'd probably lead the 5 against an average or worse player and the 9 against a good player that I thought respected me. If declarer has 5 club tricks, he's getting 5♣, 2♦, and the ♠A, so a spade or a heart gives up the 9th trick (we dont really think partner has 5 hearts, right?). Even if partner overcalled on 5 diamonds, and declarer holds ♦Q9x, which is certainly possible, declarer will need the clubs to come in to come to 9 tricks. So what am I assuming? * Partner didn't overcall 2D with ♦Kxxxx(x) and the ♠A * Partner didn't return the ♥9, then 6 from J96(x). But even if partner has the spade ace and started with only 5 diamonds, declarer can only come to 5 clubs and 3 diamonds.

I don't want to comment too strongly, since I don't play ACOL, but if south has only promised 4 spades, I find it hard to believe that 3S can be right by north. When my partner makes a takeout double, and I have a 5-card suit, I tend not to bid a 2 card suit...

Takeout IMO. South needs only look at his hand and the auction to know this. North didn't XX [the 'real' reason this is t/o], and how many hearts exactly does he expect partner to hold?

I can live with east's splinter, though I think he's a touch light. West should XX to show the ace of spades, east should bid 4H, and west has a tough call. But east has a way easier time not showing his void once west shows a first rd ctrl in spades with XX.

If I were bidding 5C over 4S, I would have just bid 5C directly (or 4N depending on your agreements). I don't see why west bid over 4S.

I would balance as long as I have a natural 2H available. But my regular partners and I have discussed balancing, and they aren't going to hang me.

yes, the point of inverting the majors is to put the dangerous hand on lead.

I play that 1S is art-F1. I would have bid 2S nat/gf.

Well, then, I think it's a guess. Too many possibilities to think about. I don't understand why declarer is working on clubs if he only has two, so I'm still inclined to lead a club, but it wouldn't surprise me if either Ace and a diamond or a low spade were right.

Agree, and I think I am a simple 4S bidder. But if your goals are as OP stated (axe them at the 4+ level), I kind of like this approach.

Here's a goofy idea that I probably wouldn't choose at the table. What about pass? Instead of guessing whether partner has 3 hearts, what if we pass? Then, if LHO bids 3H, you can balance 3S. If LHO bids something other than hearts, you can bid 4S. If opps bid to the 4-level before you get to act, you can saw them off.

Is partner in the habit of false carding? Isn't there only 1 club I can't see, and isn't it the 2?

I think you should cover the ♣9 at trick 2. I would give partner a club ruff now, assuming you are signalling UDCA. On a good day, declarer will be cut off from dummy, and partner will be able to continue drawing trumps so that we can eventually cash our side suit, probably diamonds, but maybe spades.

Goes down 2 with best defense. Click on the [GIB] button in your diagram.

I have not [edit: except in bar games with friends], but I do remember Justin telling a story in Louisville about how he was in a sting cuebid situation with xx in one suit and a void in another but knew he had plenty of tricks for a grand. I think it was Helness on his left (but maybe he can tell the story), and Justin thought about sting cue-ing the xx, but thought LHO would see right through it, so he cuebid his void, bid the grand, and without thinking about it Helness led into his void. IIRC, his partner had the A in the xx suit, so it was moot, but the point of the story is that I think it does happen when you have enough history with an opp [edit2: or at least enough to know that he knows what the 'right' play is].